DoctorKC's Free Books Online
Dr K Chaudhry
Multiple Choice Questions 
Dr K Chaudhry
Fixed sets
One hour Autosubmit Random Questions Set
For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :
Set 1
1. +I effect is shown by
A. -N02 
B. -Br 
C. -CH3 
D. -Cl 

2. 00 molal aqueous solution is
A. 1.7700 
B. 0.0177 
C. 0.1770 
D. 0.0344 

3. 0054°C. The structure of the compound will be (Given Kfp(H2O) = 1.860 km–1)
A. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]Cl2 
B. [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 
C. Pt(NH3)Cl3]Cl 
D. [Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl3 

4. 02 ´ 1025 hydrogen chloride molecules is
A. 10 
B. 100 
C. 5 
D. 50 

5. 023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is
A. 11 
B. 9 
C. 10 
D. 12 

6. 023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is
A. 12 
B. 8 
C. 9 
D. 10 

7. 06 mole of KNO3 solid is added to 100 cm3 of water at 298 k. The enthalpy of KNO3aq solution is 35.8 kJmol-1. After the solute is dissolved the temperature of the solution will be
A. 304 k 
B. 298 k 
C. 293 k 
D. 301 k 

8. 1 M HCI is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaOH is
A. 0.292 kJ 
B. 3.392 kJ 
C. 1.292 kJ 
D. 2.292 kJ 

9. 1 M HCl is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaoH is
A. 2.292 kJ 
B. 1.292 kJ 
C. 0.292 kJ 
D. 22.9 kJ 

10. 1 M with respect to Ag+, Ca2+, Mg2+ and AI3+ which will precipitate at lowest concentration of [] when solution of Na3PO4 is added?
A. Ag3PO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–6) 
B. AIPO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–20) 
C. Ca3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–33) 
D. Mg3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–24) 

11. 1 N aci The percentage of nitrogen in the food is
A. 8.4 
B. 16.8 
C. 0.84 
D. 1.68 

12. 1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution whose normality is
A. 0.066 N 
B. 0.66 N 
C. 0.15 N 
D. 1.5 N 

13. 1 Paramagnetic materials have :-
A. A small, positive susceptibility to magnetic fields. 
B. A large, positive susceptibility to an external magnetic fiel 
C. A weak, negative susceptibility to magnetic fields. 
D. No susceptibility to magnetic fields. 

14. 1 mole of Methane is
A. 0.1 g 
B. 16 g 
C. 1 g 
D. 1.6 g 

15. 1 mole of Zn2+ and 0.01 mole of Cu2+ till the sulphide ion concentration reaches 8.1 ´ 10–19 moles. Which one of the following statements is true? [Ksp of ZnS and CuS are 3 ´ 10–22 and 8 ´ 10–36 respectively]
A. Only CuS precipitates 
B. Only ZnS precipitates 
C. Both CuS and ZnS precipitate 
D. No precipitation occurs 

16. 1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic aci To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolve The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to
A. pKa - Log2 
B. pKa + L0g2 
C. pKa 
D. pKa + 2 

17. 1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic aci To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolve The pH of the resulting buffer is
A. pKa = Log 2 
B. pKa + 1 
C. pKa 
D. pKa + Log 2 

18. 12 cc of Hydrogen per second under S.T.P. condition. The current to be passed is
A. 19.3 Amp 
B. 9.65 Amp 
C. 0.965 Amp 
D. 1.93 Amp 

19. 15 V and that for the Cr3+ / Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be
A. +0.89 V 
B. +1.83 V 
C. +0.18 V 
D. +1.19 V 

20. 2 N HCI is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is
A. 10 cm3 
B. 25 cm3 
C. 10.5 cm3 
D. 12 cm3 

21. 2 N HCl is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is
A. 21.0 cm3 
B. 10 cm3 
C. 12 cm3 
D. 16.2 cm3 

22. 2 V, +0.5 V and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be
A. Z > X > Y 
B. X > Y > Z 
C. Y > Z > X 
D. Y > X > Z 

23. 2 What is doping?
A. The the addition of impurities to a semiconductor to control the electrical resistivity . 
B. Addition of multiple semiconductors into the diet, to enhance stamina for sports. 
C. Addition of silicon into the diet, to enhance stamina for sports. 
D. The the addition of impurities to a semiconductor to enhance the electrical resistivity . 

24. 2 dm3 of CO2 gas at STP. The mass of KOH required to completely neutralise the gas is
A. 42 g 
B. 56 g 
C. 20 g 
D. 28 g 

25. 2 g of organic compound on Kjeldahilization liberates ammonia which consumes 30 cm3 of 1 N HCl. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is
A. 30 
B. 46.67 
C. 35 
D. 20.8 

26. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) is an example for
A. heterogenous catalysis 
B. homogenous catalysis 
C. irreversible reaction 
D. neutralisation reaction 

27. 3 kJ/mol at its boiling point of 80°C. The entropy change in the transition of vapour to liquid at its boiling point is [in J mol–1 K–1]
A. –342 
B. +100 
C. –100 
D. +342 

28. 30 M and the concentration of is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10–5, what is the pH of this solution?
A. 9.08 
B. 8.73 
C. 11.72 
D. 9.43 

29. 303 RT J mol-1. The ratio of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor is
A. 2´10-2 
B. 10-1 
C. 2´10-3 
D. 10-2 

30. 303 RT J mol–1. The ratio of rate constant to the Arrhenius factor is
A. 0.001 
B. 0.02 
C. 0.1 
D. 0.01 

31. 35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be
A. 17.45 
B. 14.45 
C. 15.45 
D. 16.45 

32. 44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the Ca+2 ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is
A. 75 
B. 69.4 
C. 25 
D. 30.6 

33. 44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the calcium ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture is [Atomic mass of Ca = 40]
A. 25 
B. 75 
C. 31.5 
D. 40.2 

34. 5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 ml 0.1 M HCI is ´ kJ. The heat of neutralization is
A. +50 x kJ/mol 
B. +100 x kJ/mol 
C. –100 x kJ/mol 
D. –50 x kJ/mol 

35. 5 gm of NaCl of 90% purity was subjected to electrolysis. After the complete electrolysis, the solution was evaporated to get solid NaOH. The volume of 1 M acetic acid required to neutralise NaOH obtained above is
A. 1000 cm3 
B. 200 cm3 
C. 100 cm3 
D. 2000 cm3 

36. 5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container. After 3 hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will be
A. pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2 
B. pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4 
C. pSO2 > pCH4, > pH2 
D. pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4 

37. 59 V. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the cell is
A. 1020 
B. 1025 
C. 1015 
D. l030 

38. 6 eV. The possible energy value of electron in the excited state of Li2+ is
A. 30.6 eV 
B. –30.6 eV 
C. 13.6 eV 
D. –122.4 eV 

39. 65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is
A. 5 ´ 10-4 
B. 1 ´ 10-5 
C. 5 ´ 10-5 
D. 1 ´ 10-4 

40. 65 coulombs of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous MgCl2. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of Grignard reagent obtained is
A. 5 ´ 10–4 
B. 1 ´ 10–4 
C. 1 ´ 10–5 
D. 5 ´ 10–5 

41. 75, which would combine with 8 g of oxygen is
A. 31.75 
B. 1 
C. 3.175 
D. 8 

42. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in
A. 5 g of hydrogen 
B. 80 g of hydrogen 
C. 1 g of hydrogen 
D. 10 g of hydrogen 

43. 964 g dm-1 at 273 k and 76 cm Hg. The gas is
A. CO2 
B. C2H6 
C. CH4 
D. Xe 

44. A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A. 0.05 M solution of Glucose 
B. 6% solution of Glucose 
C. 1 M solution of Glucose 
D. 25% solution of Glucose 

45. A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is
A. [Ni (CO)4] 
B. K3 [Fe (CN)6] 
C. [Pl (NH3 )4]Cl2 
D. K4 [Fe (CN)6] 

46. A diabetic person carries a pocket of Glucose with him always, because
A. Glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously. 
B. Glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly. 
C. Glucose reduces the blood sugar level. 
D. Glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly. 

47. A distinctive and characteristic functional group of fats is
A. a ketonic group 
B. an ester group 
C. a peptide group 
D. an alcoholic group 

48. A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules
A. attract one another 
B. have kinetic energy 
C. show the Tyndall effect 
D. are bound by covalent bonds 

49. A ligand can also be regarded as
A. Lewis base 
B. Bronsted acid 
C. Bronsted base 
D. Lewis acid 

50. A metal present in insulin is
A. iron 
B. copper 
C. zinc 
D. aluminium 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 2
51. A solution containing 3g of the compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M glucose solution. The molecular formula of the compound is
A. CH2O 
B. C2H4O2 
C. C4H8O4 
D. C3H6O3 

52. According to Bayer's strain theory which is highly stable?
A. cyclobutane 
B. cyclopentane 
C. cycloheptane 
D. cyclohexane 

53. Acidified sodium fusion extract on addition of ferric chloride solution gives blood red colouration which confirms the presence of
A. S and Cl 
B. S 
C. N and S 
D. N 

54. Acrolcin test is positive for
A. polysaccharides 
B. reducing sugars 
C. proteins 
D. oils and fats 

55. Alkanes are also known as
A. All of these 
B. Saturated hydrocarbons 
C. Paraffins 
D. None of these 

56. Amines behave as
A. aprotic acid 
B. Lewis acids 
C. Lewis base 
D. neutral compound 

57. Among the alkali metals cesium is the most reactive because
A. the outermost electron is more loosely bound than the outermost electron of the other alkali metals 
B. it is the heaviest alkali metal 
C. its incomplete shell is nearest to the nucleus 
D. it has a single electron in the valence shell 

58. Among the following, the compound that contains ionic, covalent and coordinate linkage is
A. CaO 
B. NaCl 
C. NH3 
D. NH4Cl 

59. Among the following, which is least acidic?
A. p-nitrophenol 
B. p-chlorophenol 
C. O-cresol 
D. phenol 

60. An alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, the product formed will be
A. a tertiary amine 
B. a primary amine 
C. a secondary amine- 
D. All of these 

61. An element with atomic number 21 is a
A. transition element 
B. halogen 
C. alkali metal 
D. representative element 

62. An example for autocatalysis is
A. oxidation of NO to NO2 
B. oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4 
C. decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 
D. oxidation of SO2 to SO3 

63. An ionic compound is expected to have tetrahedral structure if lies in the range of
A. 0.414 to 0.732 
B. 0.225 to 0.414 
C. 0.732 to 1 
D. 0.155 to 0.225 

64. An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved
A. d sp2 
B. d2sp3 
C. sp2d2 
D. sp3 

65. An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in presence of copper is
A. chlorobenzene 
B. benzoic acid 
C. aniline 
D. benzaldehyde 

66. An oxidizing agent is a substance
A. Loses an electron in a redox chemical action 
B. Gains an electron in a redox chemical action 
C. Accelerates a redox chemical action 
D. Substitutes an electron in a redox chemical action 

67. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by
A. Passing dry HCl over heated iron scrap 
B. Dissolving Fe(OH)3 in concentrated HCl 
C. Passing dry Cl2 gas over heated iron scrap 
D. Dissolving Fe(OH)3 in dilute HCl 

68. Argon is used
A. in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer 
B. in high temperature welding 
C. in filling airships 
D. to obtain low temperature 

69. At equilibrium 25% of O2 is used up. The total number of moles of all the gases present at equilibrium is
A. 8.0 
B. 6.5 
C. 2.0 
D. 7.0 

70. At equilibrium, it was found that 60% of SO2 is used up. lf the partial pressure of the equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere. the partial pressure of O2 is
A. 0.41 atm 
B. 0.21 atm 
C. 0.52 atm 
D. 0.82 atm 

71. At pH = 4 glycine exists as
A. H2N - CH2 - COO- 
B. H3 - CH2 - COO- 
C. H3- CH2 - COO- 
D. H2N - CH2 - COOH 

72. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
A. For an adiabatic process, ?U = -w 
B. For an isochoric process, q = +w 
C. For an isochoric process, ?U = -q 
D. For a cyclic process, q = -w 

73. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
A. For an isothermal process: q = +w 
B. For an isochoric process: DU = -q 
C. For a cyclic process: q = -w 
D. For an adiabatic process: DU = -w 

74. Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using
A. sodium hydroxide solution 
B. Fehling's solution 
C. 2, 4-DNPH 
D. Tollens' reagent 

75. Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product
A. C6H5Cl 
B. C6Cl6 
C. C6H6Cl6 
D. CCl4 

76. Boyle's law states volume of a gas is inversely propotional to pressure provided
A. All of these 
B. Temperature of gas is same. 
C. Mass of gas is same. 
D. None of these 

77. By doing so it
A. Increase the concentration of ions 
B. . Increases the solubility product of AgCl 
C. Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed 
D. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl 

78. By heating phenol with chloroform in alkali, it is converted into
A. anisole 
B. salicylic acid 
C. phenyl benzoate 
D. salicylaldehyde 

79. By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
A. 4.0 
B. 2.0 
C. 1.4 
D. 2.8 

80. Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because
A. iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon. 
B. carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable than ferric oxide. 
C. carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron. 
D. free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric oxide. 

81. Carbon cannot reduce Fe2O3 to Fe at a temperature below 983 K because
A. CO is thermodynamically more stable then Fe2O3 
B. free energy change for the formation of CO is more negative then that of Fe2O3 
C. carbon has higher affinity towards oxygen then iron 
D. iron has higher affinity towards oxygen then carbon 

82. Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a
A. secondary alcohol 
B. ketone 
C. aldehyde 
D. ester 

83. Chemical reactions with very high Ea values are generally
A. very fast 
B. moderately fast 
C. very slow 
D. spontaneous 

84. Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic aci This can be explained using
A. +I effect 
B. - M effect 
C. - I effect 
D. + M effect 

85. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
A. H2 and Pt as catalyst 
B. LiAlH4 
C. Glycol with KOH 
D. Zn-Hg with HCl 

86. Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear?
A. CH3 - C º C - CH3 
B. CH2 = CH - CH2 - C º CH 
C. CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH3 
D. CH3 - CH = CH - CH3 

87. Cooking is fast in a pressure cooker, because
A. food particles are effectively smashe 
B. water boils at higher temperature inside the pressure cooker. 
C. food is cooked at constant volume. 
D. loss of heat due to radiation is minimum. 

88. Dalda is prepared from oils by
A. distillation 
B. hydrolysis 
C. reduction 
D. oxidation 

89. Dalton's law of partial pressures is applicable to which one of the following systems?
A. NH3 + HCl 
B. H2 + Cl2 
C. CO + H2 
D. NO + O2 

90. Decomposition of benzene diozonium chloride by using Cu2Cl2/HCl to form chlorobenzene is
A. Kolbe's reaction 
B. Sandmeyer's reaction 
C. Cannizarro's reaction 
D. Raschig's reaction 

91. Denatured alcohol is
A. Rectified spirit 
B. Undistilled ethanol 
C. Rectified spirit + methanol + naphtha 
D. Ethanol + methanol 

92. During the adsorption of Krypton on activated charcoal at low temperature;
A. ?H < 0 and ?S < 0 
B. ?H < 0 and ?S > 0 
C. ?H > 0 and ?S < 0 
D. ?H > 0 and ?S > 0 

93. During the adsorption of krypton on activated charcoal at low temperature,
A. DH > 0 and DS > 0 
B. DH < 0 and DS > 0 
C. DH < 0 and DS < 0 
D. DH > 0 and DS < 0 

94. During the fusion of an organic compound with sodium metal, nitrogen of the compound is converted into
A. NaNO2 
B. NaNC 
C. NaCN 
D. NaNH2 

95. Entropy of the universe is
A. continuously increasing 
B. continuously decreasing 
C. zero 
D. constant 

96. Ethyl benzene CANNOT be prepared by
A. Clemmensen reduction 
B. Friedel-Crafts reaction 
C. Wurtz reaction 
D. Wurtz-Fittig reaction 

97. Excess of PCl5 reacts with con H2SO4 giving
A. sulphurous acid 
B. thionyl chloride 
C. chlorosulphonic acid 
D. sulphuryl chloride 

98. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures
A. DH < DG 
B. DG and DH should be negative 
C. DG = DS = 0 
D. DG and DH should be positive 

99. For a stable molecule the value of bond order must be
A. negative 
B. positive 
C. zero 
D. there is no relationship between stability and bond order. 

100. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is INCORRECT?
A. Density: Li < Na < K < Rb 
B. Hydration energy: Li > Na > K > Rb 
C. Ionization energy: Li > Na > K > Rb 
D. Atomic size: Li < Na < K < Rb 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 3
101. For one mole of an ideal gas, increasing the temperature from 10°C to 20°C
A. increases the average kinetic energy by two times. 
B. increases the rms velocity by times. 
C. increases both the average kinetic energy and rms velocity, but not significantly. 
D. increases the rms velocity by two times. 

102. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of + 2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?
A. Co > Mn > Fe > Cr 
B. Fe > Mn > Co > Cr 
C. Cr > Mn > Co > Fe 
D. Mn > Fe > Cr > Co 

103. For the given alkane the IUPAC name is
A. 4-ethyl-8-methyl nonane 
B. 6-ethyl-2-methyl nonane 
C. 2-methyl, -6-propyl octane 
D. 1, 1 dimethyl-5-ethyl octane 

104. For the reaction 2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g) - Q KJ , the equilibrium constant depends upon
A. catalyst 
B. pressure 
C. temperature 
D. volume 

105. For the reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO ¾® 2Fe + 3CO2 the volume of carbon monoxide required to reduce one mole of ferric oxide is
A. 67.2 dm3 
B. 44.8 dm3 
C. 22.4 dm3 
D. 11.2 dm3 

106. For the reaction H20 (l) Ý H2O(g) at 373 K and one atmospheric pressure
A. DH = DE 
B. DH = TDS 
C. DH = 0 
D. DE = 0 

107. For transition metal octahedral complexes, the choice between high spin and low spin electronic configurations arises only for
A. d1, d2 and d8 complexes 
B. d1 to d3 complexes 
C. d7 to d9 complexes 
D. d4 to d7 complexes 

108. Formation of coloured solution is possible when metal ion in the compound contains
A. lone pair of electrons 
B. paired electrons 
C. unpaired electrons 
D. none of these 

109. Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic aci This can be explained using
A. +I effect 
B. +M effect 
C. –I effect 
D. –M effect 

110. Fraction of total pressure exerted by methane is
A. 1/9 
B. 1/3 
C. 8/9 
D. 1/2 

111. Glucose contains in addition to aldehyde group
A. two primary OH and three secondary OH groups 
B. three primary OH and- two secondary OH groups 
C. one primary OH and four secondary OH groups 
D. one secondary OH and four primary OH groups 

112. Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is
A. 11200 cm3 
B. 3200 cm3 
C. 22400 cm3 
D. 5600 cm3 

113. HCl
A. Mg 
B. Zn 
C. Ag 
D. Sn 

114. Helium is used in balloons in place of hydrogen because it is
A. radioactive 
B. lighter than hydrogen 
C. incombustible 
D. more abundant than hydrogen 

115. Hence, the binary solution shows
A. no deviation from Raoult's law 
B. positive deviation from Raoult's law 
C. positive or negative deviation from Raoult's law depending upon the composition 
D. negative deviation from Raoult's law 

116. Hofmann's bromamide reaction is to convert
A. amine to amide 
B. alcohol to acid 
C. acid to alcohol 
D. amide to amine 

117. How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2, 3, 4 - trichloropentane?
A. 3 
B. 1 
C. 2 
D. 4 

118. How many molecules are present in one gram of water?
A. 3.34 x 1022 
B. 3.01 x 1023 
C. 6.02 x 1023 
D. 1.67 x 1022 

119. How many optically active stereomers are possible for butan-2, 3-diol?
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 1 
D. 2 

120. Hybridization of C2 and C3 of H3C – CH = C = CH – CH3 are
A. Sp2, Sp 
B. Sp, Sp 
C. Sp2, Sp2 
D. Sp, Sp3 

121. Hydrogen bond is strongest in
A. O — H —— S 
B. S — H —— O 
C. F — H —— F 
D. O — H —— N 

122. Hydrogen is prepared from H2O by adding
A. Au, which acts as oxidising agent 
B. AI, which acts as oxidising agent 
C. Ca, which acts as reducing agent 
D. Ag, which acts as reducing agent 

123. Hydroxyl ion concentration of 1M HCl is
A. 1 ´ 101mol dm-3 
B. 1 ´ 1014mol dm-3 
C. 1 ´ 10-13mol dm-3 
D. 1 ´ 10-1mol dm-3 

124. IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl
A. n-butyl chloride 
B. t-butyl chloride 
C. 3-chloro butane 
D. 2 chloro 2 methyl propane 

125. Identify the ore not containing iron
A. siderite 
B. chalcopyrites 
C. limonite 
D. carnallite 

126. If at equilibrium the vessel has 1.5 moles of PCl5, the number of moles of PCl3 present in it is
A. 4.5 
B. 6 
C. 3 
D. 5 

127. If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then
A. there is no relationship 
B. DH < Du 
C. DH > Du 
D. DH = Du 

128. If the energies of the two photons are in the ratio of 3: 2, their wavelengths will be in the ratio of
A. 2: 3 
B. 3: 2 
C. 9: 4 
D. 1: 2 

129. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be
A. 0.1 J mol–1 K–1 
B. 100 J mol–1 K–1 
C. 1.0 J mol–1 K–1 
D. 10 J mol–1 K–1 

130. If the for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of DG° and Keq?
A. DGo > 0; Keq < 1 
B. DGo > 0; Keq > 1 
C. DGo < 0; Keq < 1 
D. DGo < 0; Keq > 1 

131. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is
A. 0.9 atm 
B. 1 atm 
C. 0.5 atm 
D. 0.8 atm 

132. In Ramsay and Rayleigh's isolation of noble gases from air, the nitrogen of the air is finally converted into
A. NaNO2 only 
B. NaNO3 only 
C. NaNO2 and NaNO3 
D. NO and NO2 

133. In Tollen's test, aldehydes
A. Are oxidised to acids 
B. Are reduced to alcohol 
C. Precipitate Ag+ as AgCI 
D. Neither reduced nor oxidised 

134. In acetylene molecule, between the carbon atoms there are
A. three pi bonds 
B. three sigma bonds 
C. one sigma and two pi bonds 
D. two sigma and one pi bonds 

135. In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly as/in
A. covalent form 
B. anion 
C. zwitterion 
D. cation 

136. In an alkaline medium, glycine predominantly exists as/in a /an
A. zwitterions 
B. covalent form 
C. cation 
D. anion 

137. In aqueous solution glucose remains as
A. Only in open chain form 
B. Only in pyranoze form 
C. Only in furanose forms 
D. In all three forms in equilibrium 

138. In chromite ore, the oxidation number iron and chromium are respectively
A. +3, +6 
B. +2, +3 
C. +2, +6 
D. +3, +2 

139. In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively
A. +3, +2 
B. +2, +6 
C. +3, +6 
D. +2, +3 

140. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be
A. increased by 10 % 
B. decreased by 1 % 
C. decreased by 10 % 
D. increased by 1 % 

141. In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to
A. nitrosoferrous sulphate 
B. ferrous nitrate 
C. ferric nitrate 
D. a mixture of NO and NO2 

142. In the electrolytic refining of Zinc,
A. graphite is at the anode. 
B. the metal ion gets reduced at the anode. 
C. acidified zinc the electrolyte. 
D. the impure metal is at the cathode. 

143. In the following electron – dot structure, calculate the formal charge from left to right nitrogen atom;
A. –1, –1, +1 
B. –1, +1, –1 
C. +1, –1, –1 
D. +1, –1, +1 

144. In the following, the element with the highest ionisation energy is
A. [Ne]3s23p2 
B. [Ne]3s23p4 
C. [Ne]3s23p3 
D. [Ne]3s23p1 

145. In the periodic table metals usually used as catalysts belong to
A. d - block 
B. f - block 
C. p - block 
D. s - block 

146. In which of the following complex ion, the central metal ion is in a state of sp3d2 hybridisation?
A. [CoF6]3- 
B. [Fe(CN)6]3- 
C. [Co(NH3)6]3+ 
D. [Cr (NH3)6]3+ 

147. In which of the following process, a maximum increase in entropy is observed?
A. sublimation of naphthalene 
B. melting of ice 
C. condensation of water 
D. dissolution of salt in water 

148. In which of the following, NH3 is not used?
A. Group reagent for the analysis of IIIgroup basic radical. 
B. Nessler's reagent 
C. T0llen's reagent 
D. Group reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical. 

149. In which one of the following, does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273K?
A. 6.023 x 1021 molecules 
B. 0.071 g 
C. 0.02 mole 
D. 0.0355 g 

150. In which one of the given formulae of xenon compounds there are five a-bonds and three p-bonds in it?
A. XeF3O2 
B. XeF2O3 
C. XeFO 
D. XeF2O2 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 4
151. Inductive effect involves
A. delocalisation of p electrons 
B. displacement of p electrons 
C. delocalisation of s electrons 
D. displacement of s electrons 

152. Insulin regulates the metabolism of
A. minerals 
B. amino acids 
C. vitamins 
D. glucose 

153. Isotopes are atoms that contain
A. Same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. 
B. Same number of protons and neutrons 
C. Different number of protons and neutrons 
D. Same number of neutrons but a different number of protons. 

154. It forms an ideal solution with 'B' in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. lf the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25 °C, the vapour pressure of pure 'B' at 25 °C is
A. 70 mm 
B. 28 mm 
C. 56 mm 
D. 140 mm 

155. It is expected to behave as
A. a central metal in a coordination compound 
B. a reducing agent 
C. an oxidising agent 
D. a chelating agent 

156. It's normality is
A. 2 N 
B. 0.3 N 
C. 9 N 
D. 1 N 

157. Its de Broglie wavelength is 6.62 ´ 10-35m. Hence x is (h = 6.62 ´ 10-34Js)
A. 0.2 kg 
B. 0.15 kg 
C. 0.25 kg 
D. 0.1 kg 

158. Its electonic configuration will be
A. 1s22s22p63s23p3 
B. 1s22s22p3 
C. 1s22s22p63s23p2 
D. 1s22s22p4 

159. Its solubility product is
A. 108y5 
B. 36y4 
C. 64y5 
D. 6y4 

160. Ketones are not prepared by
A. Oxidation of secondary alcohols 
B. Hydrolysis of esters 
C. Oxidation of primary alcohols 
D. Oxidation of acids 

161. Lucas test is associated with
A. Carboxylic acid 
B. Aldehydes 
C. Alcohols 
D. Phenols 

162. M. Therefore the number of unpaired electrons present in it is
A. 4 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 1 

163. Malleability and ductility of` metals can be accounted due to
A. the crystalline structure in metal 
B. the capacity of` layers of metal ions to slide over the other 
C. the interaction of` electrons with metal ions in the lattice 
D. the presence of electrostatic force 

164. Maximum efficiency of a commercial refrigerator which operates between –10° (inside temperature) and 25°C (outside temperature) is
A. 13.3% 
B. 11.45% 
C. 20% 
D. 24.75% 

165. Maximum number of molecules of CH3I that can react with a molecule of CH3NH2 are
A. 4 
B. 1 
C. 2 
D. 3 

166. Mercury is a liquid metal because
A. it has a small atomic size 
B. it has a completely filled d-orbital that causes d-d overlapping 
C. it has a completely filled s-orbital 
D. it has a completely filled d-orbital that prevents d-d overlapping of orbitals 

167. Mesomeric effect involves delocalisation of
A. protons 
B. sigma electrons 
C. pi electrons 
D. None of these 

168. Methoxy methane and ethanol are
A. Optical isomers 
B. Functional isomers 
C. Position isomers 
D. Chain isomers 

169. Methyl bromide is converted into ethane by heating it in ether medium with
A. Zn 
B. Na 
C. Cu 
D. Al 

170. Mg+2 is isoelectronic with
A. Zn2+ 
B. Cu2+ 
C. Na+ 
D. Ca2+ 

171. Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy because a noble gas
A. is chemically inert 
B. is diamagnetic 
C. is monoatomic 
D. has completely filled shells 

172. Monobromination of 2-methylbutane gives how many distinct isomers?
A. Three 
B. Two 
C. One 
D. Four 

173. More acidic than ethanol is

174. NO2 is not obtained on heating
A. Pb(NO3)2 
B. Cu(NO3)2 
C. AgNO3 
D. KNO3 

175. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4]4– is shared?
A. Sheet silicate 
B. Three dimensional 
C. Linear chain silicate 
D. Pyrosilicate 

176. Number of isomeric forms (constitutional and sterioisomers) for [Rh(en)2(NO2)(SCN)]+ are
A. Six 
B. Twelve 
C. Three 
D. Nine 

177. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?
A. [Ni(CN)4]2– 
B. [NiCl4]2– 
C. [CuCl4]2– 
D. [CoF6]3– 

178. Of the following compounds, the oxime of which shows geometrical isomerism, is
A. Benzaldehyde 
B. Diethylketone 
C. Acetone 
D. Formaldehyde 

179. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?
A. Melamine 
B. Terylene 
C. Backelite 
D. Nylon-66 

180. One mole of oxygen at 273 k and one mole of sulphur dioxide at 546 k are taken in two separate containers, then,
A. kinetic energy of both are equal. 
B. kinetic energy of O2 < kinetic energy of SO2. 
C. kinetic energy of O2 > kinetic energy of SO2 . 
D. None of these 

181. One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?
A. hydrogen gas 
B. liquid nitrogen 
C. mercury 
D. diamond 

182. One which is NOT an exception is
A. Mg and Al 
B. N and O 
C. Na and Mg 
D. Be and B 

183. Out of the given two compounds, the vapour pressure of B at a particular temperature is
A. higher or lower than A depending on the size of the vessel 
B. same as that of A 
C. higher than that of A 
D. lower than that of A 

184. Paracetamol is a/ an
A. antimalarial 
B. antipyretic 
C. analgesic 
D. antimalarial and analgesic 

185. Paracetamol is
A. Acetyl salicylic acid 
B. Phenyl salicylate 
C. N-acetyl p-amino phenol 
D. Methyl salicylate 

186. Phenol forms a tribromo derivative "X" is
A. bromine in carbon tetrachloride at 0° 
B. bromine in water 
C. potassium bromide solution 
D. bromine in benzene 

187. Platinum, Palladium and Iridium are called noble metals because
A. They are shining lustrous and pleasing to look at 
B. They are inert towards many common reagents. 
C. They are found in native state 
D. Alfred Nobel discovered them 

188. Presence of halogen in organic compounds can be detected using
A. Leibig's test 
B. Duma's test 
C. Beilstien's test 
D. kjeldahl test 

189. Rate of chemical reaction is determined by
A. Conductiometry 
B. Chelation 
C. Titration 
D. Spectrometry 

190. Rate of physical adsorption increases with
A. increase in temperature 
B. decrease in surface area 
C. decrease in pressure 
D. decrease in temperature 

191. Reaction of formaldehyde and ammonia gives
A. Bakelite 
B. Urea 
C. Triethylene Tetramine 
D. Hexamethylene tetramine 

192. Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide involves
A. racemisation 
B. inversion of configuration 
C. SN 1 mechanism 
D. SN2 mechanism 

193. Sodium hydroxide solution 2g/100 ml is
A. 0.2 molar solution 
B. 0.5 molar solution 
C. 1 molar solution 
D. 2 molar solution 

194. The 'B' atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A. AB2 
B. AB 
C. A3B 
D. AB3 

195. The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is
A. 1-Iodo, 3-methyl propane 
B. 2-Iodobutane 
C. 2-Iodo 2·methyl propane 
D. 4-Iodobutane 

196. The IUPAC name of K2 [Ni (CN)4] is
A. Potassium tetracyanatonickelate (II) 
B. Potassium tetracyanatonickel (II) 
C. Potassium tetracyanonickel (III) 
D. Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II) 

197. The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)5 ONO]2+ ion is
A. Penta ammine nitro cobalt (III) ion 
B. Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (IV) ion 
C. Penta ammine nitro cobalt (IV) ion 
D. Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion 

198. The IUPAC name of the complex [Co (NH3)4Cl2] Cl is
A. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (IV) chloride 
B. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (III) chloride 
C. dichloro tetraammine cobalt (III) chloride 
D. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (II) chloride 

199. The amino acid which is not optically active is
A. alanine 
B. serine 
C. lactic acid 
D. glycine 

200. The amount of the sample left behind on 1st March. 2009 (including both the days)
A. 0.5 gm 
B. 0.125 gm 
C. 1 gm 
D. 0 gm 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 5
201. The angle strain in cyclobutane is
A. 24°44' 
B. 19°22' 
C. 9°44' 
D. 29°16' 

202. The basic principle of Cottnell's precipitator is
A. peptisation 
B. Le-chatelier's principle 
C. neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles 
D. scattering of light 

203. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A. PCl3 
B. Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 
C. SOCl2 in presence of pyridine 
D. PCl5 

204. The brown ring test for nitrates depends on
A. oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide 
B. reduction of ferrous sulphate to iron 
C. oxidising action of sulphuric acid 
D. the reduction of nitrate to nitric oxide 

205. The calculated bond order of super oxide ion ( ) is
A. 1.5 
B. 1 
C. 2.5 
D. 2 

206. The carbon-carbon bond length in Benzene is
A. in between C2H4 and C2H2 
B. in between C2H6 and C2H2 
C. same as in C2H4 
D. in between C2H6 and C2H4 

207. The catalyst used in the preparation of an alkyl chloride by the action of dry HCI on an alcohol is
A. FeCl3 
B. Cu 
C. anhydrous ZnCl2 
D. anhydrous AlCl3 

208. The characteristic not related to alkali metal is
A. high ionisation energy 
B. low melting point 
C. low electronegativity 
D. their ions are isoelectronic with noble gases 

209. The chemical name of anisole is
A. Methoxy benzene 
B. Acetone 
C. Propanone 
D. Ethanoic acid 

210. The colour of sky is due to
A. wavelength of scattered light 
B. absorption of light by atmospheric gases 
C. transmission of light 
D. All of these 

211. The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers?
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 0 
D. 2 

212. The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?
A. Ionization isomerism 
B. Linkage isomerism 
C. Coordination isomerism 
D. Geometrical isomerism 

213. The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits
A. geometric isomerism 
B. both optical and geometric isomerism 
C. neither optical nor geometric isomerism 
D. optical isomerism 

214. The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH is
A. 1, 1 Dichloro ethane 
B. 1, 1, 1 Trichloro ethane 
C. 1, 2 Dichloro ethane 
D. 1 Chloro ethane 

215. The compound which gives turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
A. butan-1-ol 
B. 2-methyl propan-1-ol 
C. butan-2-ol 
D. 2-methyl propan-2-ol 

216. The compound which is not founded during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium format and calcium acetate is
A. Ethanal 
B. Propanal 
C. Methanal 
D. Propanone 

217. The condensation polymer among the following is
A. Polyethene 
B. Rubber 
D. Protein 

218. The conversion of m-nitrophenol to resorcinol involves respectively
A. reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis 
B. hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction 
C. hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization 
D. diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis 

219. The correct decreasing order of dipole moment in CH3CI, CH3Br and CH3F is
A. CH3F > CH3Br > CH3CI 
B. CH3CI> CH3Br > CH3F 
C. CH3F > CH3CI > CH3Br 
D. CH3CI> CH3F > CH3Br 

220. The correct order in which the first ionisation potential increases is
A. Na, K, Be 
B. K, Be, Na 
C. K, Na, Be 
D. Be, Na, K 

221. The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is
A. C - O < C - H < C - C < C = C 
B. C - C < C = C < C - O < C - H 
C. C - H < C = C < C – O < C - C 
D. C - H < C - O < C – C < C = C 

222. The correct order of ionisation energy of C, N, O, F is
A. C < N < O < F 
B. F < O < N < C 
C. F < N < C < O 
D. C < O < N < F 

223. The correct sequence of reactions to convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves
A. diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis 
B. reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis 
C. hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization 
D. hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction 

224. The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is
A. transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H- 
B. electrophilic attack by OH-, transfer of H+ and transfer of H- 
C. nucleophilic attack, transfer of H- and transfer of H+ 
D. transfer of H-, transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack 

225. The correct set of four Quantum numbers for outermost electron of Potassium (Z = 19) is
A. 4, 1, 0, 
B. 4, 0, 0, 
C. 3, 0, 0, 
D. 3, 1, 0, 

226. The derivative is
A. 1, 1 - dibromopropane 
B. 1, 4 - dibromobutane 
C. 2, 2 - dibromobutane 
D. 1, 2 - dibromoethane 

227. The edge length of NaCl unit cell is
A. 276 pm 
B. 138 pm 
C. 415 pm 
D. 552 pm 

228. The electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 represents
A. Ni2+ 
B. Cu+ 
C. Ni 
D. Cu2+ 

229. The electronic configuration of Cr3+ is
A. [Ar]3d54s1 
B. [Ar]3d24s1 
C. [Ar]3d44s2 
D. [Ar]3d34s0 

230. The electronic transitions from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wavelength in (where n = principal quantum state)
A. H+ 
B. Li+2 
C. He+ 
D. H 

231. The equivalent mass of which remains constant?
A. neither carbon nor oxygen 
B. oxygen 
C. carbon 
D. both carbon and oxygen 

232. The function of Fe(OH)3 in the contact process is
A. to remove arsenic impurity 
B. to remove moisture 
C. to detect colloidal impurity 
D. to remove dust particles 

233. The gas B turns potassium dichromate acidified with dilute H2SO4 to a green coloured solution C. A, B and C are respectively
A. Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 
B. Na2S, SO, Cr2 (SO4)3 
C. Na2SO4, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 
D. Na2S2O3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 

234. The gases that are not adsorbed are
A. Ne and Xe 
B. He and Ne 
C. He and Xe 
D. Ar and Kr 

235. The general formula of a cycloalkane is
A. CnH2n + 2 
B. CnH2n 
C. CnH2n - 2 
D. CnHn 

236. The geometry of electron pairs around I in IF5 is
A. Trigonal bipyramidal 
B. Octahedral 
C. Square pyramidal 
D. Pentagonal planar 

237. The half life time of 1g sample of X is
A. 30 min 
B. 15 min 
C. 7.5 min 
D. 22.5 min 

238. The highest magnetic moment is shown by the transition metal ion with the configuration
A. 3d9 
B. 3d2 
C. 3d5 
D. 3d7 

239. The incorrect statement in respect of Chromyl chloride test is
A. liberation of Chlorine 
B. formation of red vapours 
C. formation of Chromyl chloride 
D. formation of lead chromate 

240. The iron present in it is oxidised by KMnO4 in acid medium. The equivalent mass of Mohr's salt is
A. 156 
B. 392 
C. 31.6 
D. 278 

241. The letter 'D' in D - glucose signifies
A. that it is a monosaccharide 
B. configuration at all chiral carbons 
C. configuration at a particular chiral carbon 
D. dextrorotatory 

242. The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce the same lowering of vapour pressure as is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in the same quantity of water is
A. 6 g 
B. 3 g 
C. 1 g 
D. 18 g 

243. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is
A. 2 
B. 1 
C. 4 
D. 3 

244. The maximum number of possible isomers in 1-bromo-2-methyl cyclobutane is
A. 2 
B. 4 
C. 16 
D. 8 

245. The maximum number of tripeptides that can be obtained is
A. 8000 
B. 6410 
C. 5360 
D. 7465 

246. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be
A. 6.50 u 
B. 50.00 u 
C. 12.25 u 
D. 25.00 u 

247. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is
A. 188 
B. 168 
C. I92 
D. 182 

248. The monomers of Buna-S rubber are
A. vinyl chloride and sulphur 
B. butadiene 
C. styrene and butadiene 
D. isoprene and butadiene 

249. The normality of 30 volume H2O2 is
A. 6.685 N 
B. 2.678 N 
C. 8.034 N 
D. 5.336 N 

250. The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 3 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 6
251. The number of lone pair and bond pair electrons in the molecule are respectively
A. 2 and 2 
B. 3 and 1 
C. 0 and 4 
D. 1 and 3 

252. The number of naturally occurring p-block elements that are diamagnetic is
A. 7 
B. 18 
C. 6 
D. 5 

253. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of the product will be
A. X – 4 – Y 
B. X – Y – 5 
C. X – Y – 6 
D. X – Y – 3 

254. The number of nodal planes present in s * s antibonding orbitals is
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 0 
D. 1 

255. The number of unidentate ligands in the complex ion is called
A. primary valency 
B. Coordination number 
D. oxidation number 

256. The one which has least Iodine value is
A. Ginger oil 
B. Sunflower oil 
C. Ghee 
D. Groundnut oil 

257. The one which is NOT an exception is
A. N and O 
B. Na and Mg 
C. Mg and Al 
D. Be and B 

258. The order of stability of metal oxides is
A. Fe2O3 < Cr2O3 < AIZO3 < MgO 
B. Fe2O3 < Al2O3 < Cr2O3 < MgO 
C. Al2O3 < MgO < Fe2O3< Cr2O3 
D. Cr2O3 < MgO < Al2O3 < Fe2O3 

259. The organic compound is
A. a primary alcohol 
B. an aldehyde 
C. a ketone 
D. a secondary alcohol 

260. The organic compound may be
A. Chloroform 
B. Methane 
C. Carbon tetrachloride 
D. Ethyl iodide 

261. The original compound is
A. tertiary alcohol 
B. primary alcohol 
C. carboxylic acid 
D. secondary alcohol 

262. The oxidation state of iron in K4 [Fe (CN )6] is
A. 3 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 1 

263. The oxide of an element whose electronic configuration is ls2 2s2 2p6 3s1 is
A. Basic 
B. Neutral 
C. Acidic 
D. Amphoteric 

264. The ozone layer forms naturally by
A. the interaction of oxygen and water vapour 
B. the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen 
C. the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen 
D. the interaction of CFC with oxygen 

265. The pH of 10-8 M HCI solution is
A. slightly more than 7 
B. between 6 and 7 
C. 8 
D. more than 8 

266. The pH of the diluted base is
A. between 5 and 6 
B. between 6 and 7 
C. between 10 and 11 
D. between 7 and 8 

267. The pH of the resulting solution is
A. 2 
B. 8 
C. 1 
D. 3 

268. The percentage of silver in the zinc layer is approximately
A. 89 
B. 94 
C. 97 
D. 91 

269. The percentage of silver still left in the lead layer is approximately
A. 1 
B. 3 
C. 5 
D. 2 

270. The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a carbonyl compound is called
A. hydrazide 
B. hydrazine 
C. oxime 
D. hydrazone 

271. The product is treated with N&2CO3 solution. The missing reagent in the above reaction is
A. Phenol 
B. Methanol 
C. NaOH 
D. Ethanol 

272. The product obtained reacts with Phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structure of X is
B. (CH3)2CHOH 
C. CH3 ¾ ¾ CH3 

273. The reaction C2H5ONa + C2H5I ® C2H5OC2H5 + NaI is known as
A. Wurtz's synthesis 
B. Williamson's synthesis 
C. Kolbe's synthesis 
D. Grignard's synthesis 

274. The reaction is called
A. Etard's reaction 
B. Wurtz's reaction 
C. Fittig's reaction 
D. Williamson's reaction 

275. The reagent used in Clemmenson's reduction is
A. Zn-Hg / con. HCl 
B. aq. K0H 
C. Con H2SO4 
D. al KOH 

276. The reagent used to convert an alkyne to alkene is
A. Zn - Hg / HCl 
B. Zn / HCl 
C. Sn / HCl 
D. Pd / H2 

277. The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone react is
A. Fehling's reaction 
B. I2/NaOH 
C. Carbonic acid 
D. Tollen's reagent 

278. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite
A. has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds. 
B. is a non-crystalline substance. 
C. is an allotropic form of carbon. 
D. has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers. 

279. The salt will precipitate when the concentration of B- ions is kept
A. between 10-8 M to 10-7 M 
B. >10-5 M 
C. between 10-7 M to 10-6 M 
D. <1O-8 M 

280. The set of quantum numbers for the outermost electron for copper in its ground state is
A. 4, 2, 2, +½ 
B. 4, 0, 0, +½ 
C. 3, 2, 2, +½ 
D. 4, 1, 1, +½ 

281. The sp3d2 hybridization of central atom of a molecule would lead to
A. Trigonal bipyramidal geometry 
B. Octahedral geometry 
C. Tetrahedral geometry 
D. square planar geometry 

282. The spin only magnetic moment of Fe2+ ion (in BM) is approximately
A. 5 
B. 7 
C. 4 
D. 6 

283. The spin only magnetic moment of Mn+4 ion is nearly
A. 3 BM 
B. 4 BM 
C. 5 BM 
D. 6 BM 

284. The temperature of the slag zone in the metallurgy of Iron using blast furnace is
A. 800 - 1000 °C 
B. 1500 - 1600 °C 
C. 1200 - 1500 °C 
D. 400 - 700 °C 

285. The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is
A. 2k/a 
B. ak 
C. a/k 
D. a/2k 

286. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
A. 32 
B. 16 
C. 8 
D. 4 

287. The typical range of molar enthalpies for the strongest intermolecular (Hydrogen) bonds is
A. 4 – 25 kJ 
B. 300 – 500 kJ 
C. 200 – 300 kJ 
D. 4 – 25 J 

288. The van't Hoff factor I for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively
A. Greater than one and less than one 
B. Less than one and less than one 
C. Less than one and greater than one 
D. Greater than one and greater than one 

289. The volume of 10N and 4N HCl required to make 1 litre of 7N HCl are
A. 0.50 litre of 10N HCl and 0.50 litre of 4N HCl 
B. 0.80 litre of 10N HCl and 0.20 litre of 4N HCl 
C. 0.75 litre of 10N HCl and 0.25 litre of 4N HCl 
D. 0.60 litre of 10N HCl and 0.40 litre of 4N HCl 

290. The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to times the Rydberg's constant if the electron jumps from
A. n = 3 to n = 1 
B. n = 9 t0 n = 1 
C. n = 10 t0 n = 1 
D. n = 2 t0 n = 1 

291. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with it would be
A. 6.63 ´ 10-37m 
B. 6.63 ´ 10-31m 
C. 6.63 ´ 10-34m 
D. 6.63 ´ 10-35m 

292. The yellow precipitate formed during the chromyl chloride test is chemically
A. chromic acid 
B. lead acetate 
C. sodium chromate 
D. lead chromate 

293. Thermodynamic standard conditions of temperature and pressure are
A. 298 k and 1 atm 
B. 273 k and 101.3 k Pa 
C. 0°C and 1 atm 
D. 0°C and 101.3 k Pa 

294. This crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the comers of the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest formula of the compound is
A. AB6 
B. A8B4 
C. AB 
D. A6B 

295. This is because
A. O2 and Xe have comparable ionisation energies 
B. O2 and Xe have comparable sizes 
C. O2 and Xe have comparable electronegativities 
D. both O2 and Xe are gases 

296. This is because
A. benzoic acid gets dissociated in benzene 
B. benzoic acid gets associated in benzene 
C. benzoic acid has higher molar mass than benzene 
D. benzoic acid is an organic solute 

297. This is due to
A. +R effect of -NH2 group 
B. hyperconjugation effect 
C. -R effect of -NH2 group 
D. -I effect of -NH2 group 

298. Waxes are esters of
A. glycerol and fatty acid 
B. long chain alcohols and long chain fatty acids 
C. long chain alcohols 
D. glycerol 

299. What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis?
A. Starch is hemiacetal 
B. Starch is acetal 
C. Starch is polymer 
D. Starch contains only few molecules of glucose 

300. When 'Y' is boiled with aqueous alkali forms Z.Z answers the iodoform test. The compound 'A' is
A. methoxyethane 
B. ethoxyethane 
C. Propan -1 -o1 
D. Propan -2 -o1 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 7
301. When KBr is dissolved in water, K+ ions are
A. hydrated 
B. hydrolysed 
C. oxidised 
D. reduced 

302. When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is dry distilled, the resulting compound is
A. acetophenone 
B. benzaldehyde 
C. acetaldehyde 
D. benzophenone 

303. When a sulphur sol is evaporated sulphur is obtaine On mixing with water sulphur sol is not forme The sol is
A. hydrophilic 
B. hydrophobic 
C. lyophilic 
D. reversible 

304. When carbon monoxide is passed over solid caustic soda heated to 200°C, it forms
A. Na2CO3 
D. NaHCO3 

305. When compared to DG0 for the formation of Al2O3 , the AG0 for the formation of Cr2O3 is
A. unpredicted 
B. same 
C. lower 
D. higher 

306. When con H2SO4 is heated with P2 05 , the acid is converted into
A. sulphur dioxide 
B. sulphur trioxide 
C. a mixture of sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide 
D. sulphur 

307. When sulphur dioxide is passed in an acidified K2Cr2 O7 solution, the oxidation state of sulphur is changed from
A. + 6 to + 4 
B. + 4 to + 2 
C. + 4 to 0 
D. + 4 to + 6 

308. When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2, the number of orbitals possible are
A. 3 
B. 7 
C. O 
D. 5 

309. Which complex can not ionise in solution?
A. K4[Fe(CN)6] 
B. [CoCl3(NH3)3] 
C. K2[pt(F6)] 
D. [Pt(NH3)6] Cl4 

310. Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2 group?
A. cyclopropane 
B. cyclopontane 
C. cyclohexane 
D. cyclobutanc 

311. Which is not the correct statement about RNA and DNA?
A. DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually single stranded 
B. RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found in DN as a base 
C. DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and RNA contains ribose 
D. DNA is active in virus where RNA never appears in virus 

312. Which is the most easily liquifiable rare gas?
A. Kr 
B. Xe 
C. Ar 
D. Ne 

313. Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide?
A. Ca 
B. Fe 
C. Cr 
D. Al 

314. Which of the following can be measured by the Ostwald-Walker dynamic method
A. Relative lowering of vapour pressure 
B. Lowering of vapour pressure 
C. Vapour pressure of the solvent 
D. All of these 

315. Which of the following compound would not evolve CO2 when treated with NaHCO3 solution?
A. benzoic acid 
B. salicylic acid 
C. phenol 
D. 4-nitro benzoic acid 

316. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?
A. CaCl2 
B. CaBr2 
C. CaI2 
D. CaF2 

317. Which of the following does not give benzoic acid on hydrolysis?
A. benzyl chloride 
B. methyl benzoate 
C. phenyl cyanide 
D. benzoyl chloride 

318. Which of the following electrolytic solutions has the least specific conductance `?
A. 0.02 N 
B. 0.002 N 
C. 0.2 N 
D. 2 N 

319. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
A. Carbon 
B. Phosphorus 
C. Silicon 
D. Manganese 

320. Which of the following forms a colour less solution in aqueous medium?
A. Cr 3+ 
B. Ti 3+ 
C. V 3+ 
D. Sc 3+ 

321. Which of the following gives an aldehyde on dry distillation?
A. Calcium benzoate 
B. Calcium acetate 
C. Calcium formate + calcium acetate 
D. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate 

322. Which of the following has the highest bond order?
A. He2 
B. O2 
C. H2 
D. N2 

323. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired 'd' electrons?
A. Zn2+ 
B. Ni3+ 
C. Fe2+ 
D. Cu+ 

324. Which of the following is an intensive property?
A. temperature 
B. surface tension 
C. viscosity 
D. All of these 

325. Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition?
A. q = 0, DT ¹ 0, w = 0 
B. q ¹ 0, DT = 0, w = 0 
C. q = 0, DT = 0, w = 0 
D. q = 0, DT < 0, w ¹ 0 

326. Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base?
A. H2O 
B. NH3 
C. BF3 
D. OH– 

327. Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
A. Dolomite 
B. Calamine 
C. Sea water 
D. Carnallite 

328. Which of the following is not nucleofile?
A. Hydrogen peroxide 
B. Boron trifluoride 
C. Benzoyl chloride 
D. Hydrogen sulfide 

329. Which of the following is used to prepare Cl2 gas at room temperature from concentrated HCI?
A. MnO2 
B. KMnO4 
C. Cr2O3 
D. H2S 

330. Which of the following organic compounds answers to both iodoform test and Fehling's test'?
A. methanal 
B. ethanol 
C. propanone 
D. ethanal 

331. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?
A. Ga and In 
B. Ni and Fe 
C. Ag and Au 
D. Zr and Ti 

332. Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect?
A. C6H5NH2 
B. C6H5NH3 
C. C6H5Cl 
D. C6H5OH 

333. Which of these will have the least volume?
A. HCl 
B. HBr 
C. HF 
D. HI 

334. Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid?
A. Phosphoric acid 
B. Uracil 
C. Ribose sugar 
D. Guanidine 

335. Which one of the following DOES NOT involve coagulation?
A. Formation of delta region 
B. Peptization 
C. Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride 
D. Treatment of drinking water by potash alum 

336. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is the least stable?
A. Half-chair 
B. Twisted-boat 
C. Boat 
D. Chair 

337. Which one of the following does NOT involve coagulation?
A. Formation of delta regions 
B. Peptization 
C. Treatment of drinking water by potash alum 
D. Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride 

338. Which one of the following forms propanenitrile as the major product?
A. Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN 
B. Ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN 
C. Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN 
D. Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN 

339. Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms of oxygen?
A. 2 g of water 
B. 2 g of carbon monoxide. 
C. 2 g of sulphur dioxide 
D. 2 g of carbon dioxide 

340. Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?
A. Quartz 
B. Rock salt 
C. Dry ice 
D. Ice 

341. Which one of the following is a molecular crystal?
A. Quartz 
B. Rock salt 
C. Dry ice 
D. Diamond 

342. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?
A. Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process 
B. Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid 
C. Hydrogenation of oil 
D. Manufacture of ammonia by Haber's process 

343. Which one of the following is employed as Antithistamine?
A. Norothindrone 
B. Diphenyl hydramine 
C. Chloramphenicol 
D. Omeprazole 

344. Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
A. NO 
B. CO 
C. O3 
D. N2 

345. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?
A. CaOCl2 
B. Ca(OCl)2 
C. CaO2Cl 
D. CaCl2 

346. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
A. [Cu (NH3 )4]+2 - square planar 
B. [Co (en )3 ]+3 - follows EAN rule 
C. [Fe (CN )6]-3 - sp3d2 
D. [Ni(CO)4] - neutral ligand 

347. Which one of the following shows functional isomerism?
A. C2H5OH 
B. CH2Cl2 
C. C2H4 
D. C3H6 

348. Which one of the following statement is no true?
A. Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant 
B. Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm 
C. pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5 
D. Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish 

349. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?
A. On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose 
B. (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups 
C. (+) Lactose is reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation 
D. (+) Lactose is a b-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose 

350. Which one of the following statements is true'?
A. Refining of oil involves hydrogenation 
B. Addition of antioxidant to oil minimizes rancidity 
C. Saponification of oil yields a diol. 
D. Drying of oil involves hydrolysis 

Pass the CPA Exam with Lambers
Set 8
351. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour? At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27
A. [Mn(H2O)6]2+ 
B. [Co(H2O)6]2+ 
C. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 
D. [Cr(H2O)6]2+ 

352. Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
A. It forms only one type of monosubstituted product 
B. The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120° 
C. Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value 
D. There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds 

353. Which one of these is NOT true for benzene?
A. It forms only one type of monosubstituted product. 
B. There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds. 
C. The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value. 
D. The bond angle between the carbon-carbon bonds is 1200. 

354. a-maltose consists of
A. two b-D-glucopyranose units with 1-4 glycosidic linkage 
B. two a-D-glucopyranose units with 1-2 glycosidic linkage 
C. one a-D-glucopyranose units and one b-D-glucopyranose unit with 1-2 glycosidic linkage 
D. two a-D-glucopyranose units with 1-4 glycosidic linkage 

355. equilibrium is shifted to the leftCORRECT
A. equilibrium is shifted to the right 
C. equilibrium is unaltered 
D. reaction rate does not change 

356. ln electrophillic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A. increases electron density at ortho and para positions 
B. decreases electron density at ortho and para positions 
C. decreases electron density at meta position 
D. increases electron density at meta position 

357. m.s. velocity of molecules of a gas of density 4 kg m-3 and pressure 1.2 ´ 105 Nm-2 is
A. 900 ms-1 
B. 600 ms-1 
C. 120 ms-1 
D. 300 ms-1 

358. n-propyl bromide on treating with alcoholic KOH produces
A. propane 
B. propanol 
C. propene 
D. propyne 

359. pH value of which one of the following is NOT equal to one?
A. 0.1 M HNO3 
B. 0.1 M CH3 COOH 
C. 50 cm3 0.4 M HCl + 50 cm3 0.2 M NaOH 
D. 0.05 M H2SO4 

360. pH value of which one of the following is not equal to one?
A. 0.05 M H2SO4 
B. 0.1 M CH3 COOH 
C. 0.1 M HNO3 
D. 50cm3 of 0.4 M HCI +50 cm3 of 0.2M NaOH 

Medicine For Students & Practitioners
Indian Pharmaceutical Index
Medical Laboratory Techniques
Synopsis of Pathology
A Guide To Pathology
Anatomy Mnemonics
Forensic Medicine
Obsterics & Gynaecology
Cardiothoracic Surgery
YouTube Partner Channel
Print Editions Published By : JAYPEE BROTHERS, Medical Publishers
4838/24, Ansari Road, Daryaganj,
Post Box 7193 New Delhi 110 002 India
Phone: 43574357  23272143  23272703    23282021  23245672
Fax: +91-11-23276490  23245683
Email: Website :