Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
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For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

Anatomy
1. Gluteus medius is supplied by
A. Superior Gluteal Nerve 
B. Inferior Gluteal Nerve 
C. Nerve to Obturator Internus 
D. Nerve to Quadratus Femoris 

2. Auricle develops from
A. 1st branchial cleft 
B. 1st branchial arch 
C. 1st and 2nd branchial arch 
D. 1st, 2nd and 3rd branchial arch 

3. All of the following are composite muscle Except:
A. Pectineus 
B. Rectus femoris 
C. Adductor magnus 
D. Biceps femoris 

4. Lymph from heel and lateral aspect of foot first drains into
A. Popliteal lymph nodes 
B. Deep inguinal 
C. Superficial inguinal 
D. Obturator node 

5. Normal, quiet expiration is achieved by contraction of the
A. Elastic tissue in the thoracic wall and lungs 
B. Serratus posterior superior muscles 
C. Pectoralis minor muscles 
D. Serratus anterior muscles 

6. Obstruction to the flow of CSF at the aqueduct of Sylvius will most likely lead to the enlargement of all the ventricles
A. Only lateral ventricle 
B. Only third ventricle 
C. Both lateral and third ventricles 
D. Fourth ventricle 

7. Temporal branch of the facial nerve supplies the muscle
A. Conugator Supercilli 
B. Depressor anguli oris 
C. Depressor labii inferioris 
D. Mentalis 

8. Gland receiving secretomotor fibres from pterygo palatine ganglion is -
A. lacrimal 
B. submandibular 
C. sublingual 
D. parotid 

9. Injury to which nerve during a herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the root of scrotum and base of penis
A. Ilioinguinal 
B. Pudendal 
C. Genitofemoral 
D. Iliohypogastric 

10. Nerve supply of pronator teres is
A. Ulnar nerve 
B. Radial nerve 
C. Median nerve 
D. Inferior interosseus nerve 

Physiology
11. Denervation hypersensitivity:
A. is due to upregulation of neurotransmitter receptors in the denervated structure 
B. does not occur in smooth muscle 
C. partly explains the release phenomenon that occurs in neurological diseases 
D. All these 

12. Large diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
A. Slow fibers. 
B. Intermediate fibers. 
C. Fast fibers. 
D. Red muscles. 

13. Inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord release:
A. glycine 
B. substance P 
C. neuropeptide Y 
D. All these 

14. In postnatal life, thyroid hormones do notincrease oxygen consumption in the:
A. heart 
B. skeletal muscle 
C. adult brain 
D. liver 

15. Axons of ganglion cells in the retina terminate in:
A. lateral geniculate nucleus 
B. pretectal nucleus 
C. suprachiasmatic nucleus 
D. All these 

16. How many transmembrane domains do G- protein coupled receptors have?
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 7 
D. 12 

17. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones of the skeleton. 
B. Skeletal muscles are responsible for controlling the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts. 
C. Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart. 
D. Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs. 

18. When myosin cross-bridges bind to the active sites on actin,
A. ATP is hydrolyzed. 
B. They pivot toward the M line. 
C. The sarcomere strengthens. 
D. Muscle relaxation occurs. 

19. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones of the skeleton. 
B. Skeletal muscles are responsible for controlling the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts. 
C. Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart. 
D. Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs. 

20. Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
A. Lack a cell membrane. 
B. Have many nuclei. 
C. Are very small. 
D. Lack mitochondria. 

Biochemistry
21. The last receiver of electrons in electron transport system is
A. Coenzyme Q 
B. FADH2 
C. O2 
D. Cytochrome b 

22. In active transport, the membrane structure that functions is
A. cholesterol 
B. integral proteins 
C. carbohydrates 
D. hydrophobic molecules 

23. For gene transfer to be effective, transforming DNA must be
A. incorporated into the bacterial chromosome 
B. incorporated into a viral genome 
C. free in the bacterial cytoplasm 
D. none of the above 

24. The IPTG is a gratuitous inducers of (ß-galactosidase, and x-gal is a chromogenic substrate. When a-complementation occurs which colour is produced?
A. Blue 
B. White 
C. Brown 
D. No colour is produced 

25. A cell which defends against body cells in which viruses are reproducing is
A. Exotoxin 
B. Cytotoxic T cell 
C. Endotoxin 
D. Suppressor T cell 

26. Which of the following relationships between absorbance and %transmittance is incorrect?
A. A = log10 100 / %T 
B. A = 2 - log10 %T 
C. A = log10 1 / T 
D. All are correct 

27. Tetrahydrobiopterin is required for the metabolism of
A. Arginine 
B. Lysine 
C. Phenylalanine 
D. Serine 

28. 2,3- BPG binds to ---- sites of hemoglobin and ------the affinity for oxygen
A. 4, decreases 
B. 1, decreases 
C. 4, increases 
D. 1, increases 

29. Which of the following enzymes does not participate in oxidation reduction reaction?
A. Dehydrogenase 
B. Peroxidases 
C. Hydroxyperoxidase 
D. Oxygenase 

30. What is the relationship between wavelength and wave number?
A. Wavenumber = 1 / wavelength in centimeters 
B. Wavenumber - wavelength in nanometers = 1 
C. Wavelength in nanometers x wavenumber = 1 
D. None of the above 

Pathology
31. A characteristic of myeloblasts is :
A. Golgi bodies 
B. Inclusion bodies 
C. Russel bodies 
D. Auer bodies 

32. Marker for rhabdomyosarcoma
A. Desmin 
B. Synaptophysin 
C. Keratin 
D. Synaptophysin 

33. A true capsule Occurs in :
A. Rhabdomyoma 
B. Ewing's tumour 
C. Leiomyoma of uterus 
D. Benign haemangioma 

34. Free radicals
A. are not a byproduct of metabolism.  
B. can only form in the presence of oxygen.  
C. may arise by absorption of radiant energy.  
D. are removed with the aid of Vitamin A derivatives 

35. The most likely interval between infection and appearance of secondary lesions in syphilis is :
A. 2-3 hours 
B. 2-3 days 
C. 2-3 weeks 
D. 2-3 months 

36. The causes of vascular changes in inflammation are :
A. Nervous factors (axon reflex) 
B. Chemical-'H' like substance and leucotaxin 
C. Anoxia 
D. All of these 

37. Apoptosis results in
A. recruitment of neutrophils.  
B. swelling and lysis of cells.  
C. phagocytosis of apoptotic cells by surrounding healthy cells.  
D. release of free radicals 

38. Thalassaemia majar manifests in :
A. Childhood 
B. Puberty 
C. Adolescence 
D. Middle age 

39. Brown induration is a type of chronic venous congestion occuring in :
A. Liver 
B. Heart 
C. Lung 
D. Kidney 

40. Pulmonary hypertension causes hypertrophy of the :
A. Right ventricle 
B. Left ventricle 
C. Right atrium 
D. Left atrium 

Microbiology
41. __________is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eukaryotes.
A. Host preference 
B. Morphology 
C. Physical nature of virion constituents 
D. Chemical nature of virion constituents 

42. The bacteria which is predominant flora of the human gut is
A. Escherichia coli 
B. Clostridium perfringens 
C. Bacteroides 
D. Actinomyces 

43. When the fermentation of fructose results in the bitter product mannitol, the fermentation is sometime termed as-
A. mannkic 
B. mannitic 
C. amertume 
D. none of these 

44. Induction of tolerance mechanism(s) is/are
A. suppression 
B. clonal deletion 
C. clonal anergy 
D. all of these 

45. Which of the following is least likely to have a rigid cell wall?
A. Bacterium 
B. Archaean 
C. Fungus 
D. Protozoan 

46. Which of the following nucleic acid is present in hepatitis B virus?
A. dsDNA 
B. ssRNA 
C. ssDNA 
D. dsRNA 

47. The organism which grows best above 45°C are called
A. psychrophilic 
B. mesosphilic 
C. thermophilic 
D. any of these 

48. The phospholipids present in cytoplasm membrane of the archaeo-bacteria is
A. phosphoglycerides 
B. polyisoprenoid 
C. polyisoprenoid branched chain lipids 
D. none of the above 

49. The yoghurt is made from
A. Lactobacillus bulgaricus 
B. Streptococcus thermophilus 
C. S. cremoris 
D. mixed culture of A and B 

50. The first penicillin isolated by Alexander Fleming, penicillin F is also called
A. 2-Pentenyl Penicillin 
B. n-heptyl penicillin 
C. phenoxymethyl penicillin 
D. benzyl penicillin 

Pharmacology
51. Nicotinic ACh receptors (ligand-gated) involve the movement of what ion across the membrane?
A. K+ 
B. Ca++ 
C. Cl- 
D. Na+ 

52. Tick the drug that can induce peripheral neuropathy and oral ulceration:
A. Acyclovire 
B. Zalcitabine 
C. Zidovudine 
D. Saquinavir 

53. Which of the following antiseizure drugs acts directly on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex?
A. Vigabatrin 
B. Diazepam 
C. Gabapentin 
D. Valproate 

54. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
A. Tubocurarine 
B. Succinylcholine 
C. Pancuronium 
D. Gallamine 

55. Indicate the drug - Vinca minor alcaloid:
A. Nicergoline 
B. Warfarin 
C. Cinnarizine 
D. Vinpocetine 

56. All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands EXCEPT:
A. Pepsin 
B. Gastrin 
C. Histamine 
D. Carbonate mineral waters 

57. Which of the following anxiolytics has minimal abuse liability?
A. Oxazepam 
B. Buspirone 
C. Flumazenil 
D. Alprazolam 

58. Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with analgesic activity:
A. Reserpine 
B. Propranolol 
C. Clopheline 
D. Prazosin 

59. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
A. Only water solutions can be injected 
B. Oily solutions can be injected 
C. Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections 
D. The action develops slower, than at oral administration 

60. Fluoxetine has fewer adverse effects because of:
A. Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition 
B. Depleted stores of amine neurotransmitters 
C. Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-adrenergic receptors 
D. All of these 

Forensic medicine
61. In exhumated bodies the poison likely to be detected most significintly is
A. Arsenic 
B. Dhatura 
C. Opium 
D. Alcohol 

62. All of the following are true about methanol poisoning, Except:
A. Methanol causes snow field vision 
B. Fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase 
C. Minimum lethal dose of methanol is 1.25ml/kg body weight 
D. Formic acid is mainly responsible for toxicity 

63. Putrefaction occurs over the caecal area after around
A. 24-28 hours 
B. 1-24 hours 
C. 12 hours 
D. 3 days 

64. Hegar's sign is meant for detection of
A. Sterility 
B. Virginity 
C. Pregnancy 
D. Dead foetus 

65. Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis?
A. Phenobarbitone 
B. Pethidine 
C. Atropine 
D. Scopolamine 

66. Least toxic lead is
A. Carbonate, 
B. Arsenate 
C. Sulphide,  
D. Oxide, 

67. Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is –
A. Trophozoites 
B. Sporozoites 
C. Merozoites 
D. Gametocytes 

68. Antemortem drowning is diagnosed by
A. Weeds and grass in hand, 
B. water in stomach, 
C. Fine froth at mouth and nostrils,  
D. Cutis Anserina, 

69. Alkali is neutralized by
A. Nitric Acid, 
B. Vinegar  
C. Sulphuric Acid, 
D. Hydrochloric Acid, 

70. Hatter’s shakes are seen in which poisoning –
A. Mercury 
B. Arsenic 
C. Lead 
D. Copper 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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