Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
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For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

Anatomy
1. Person has been brought in casualty with history of road accident. He had lost consciousness transiently and then gained consciousness but then again became unconscious. Most likely he is having brain hemorrhage of:
A. Intracerebral 
B. Sub arachnoid 
C. Sub dural 
D. Extra dural 

2. Fibers of the accessory cuneate nucleus terminate in the
A. Spinal cord 
B. Medulla 
C. Midbrain 
D. Cerebellar cortex 

3. All the following are branches of cavernous part of Internal carotid artery except
A. Ophthalmic Artery 
B. Branches to cavernous sinus 
C. Hypophyseal artery 
D. Meningeal artery 

4. Following are the boundaries of epiploeic foramen EXCEPT;
A. free edge of lesser omentum 
B. quadrate lobe of liver 
C. 1st part of duodenum 
D. inferior vena cava 

5. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of:
A. Long thoracic 
B. Axillary 
C. Radial 
D. Median 

6. de Quervain’s disease is characterized by
A. Compression of the median nerve at the wrist 
B. Stenosing tenovaginitis of peroneus tendon 
C. Compression of ulnar nerve at the wrist 
D. Stenosing vaginitis of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis 

7. Lesion of cranial part of XI nerve cause paralysis of
A. Sternodeidomastiod muscle 
B. Trapezius muscle 
C. Stylopharyngeus muscle 
D. Pharyngeal constrictors 

8. The projecting ridges in the ventricular wall giving it the spongy appearance areknown as:
A. musculi pectinati 
B. sulcus terminalis 
C. crista terminalis 
D. trabeculae carneae 

9. An infant presents with gastroschisis at birth. Which of the following applies to this condition
A. It is also seen in patients with aganglionic megacolon 
B. It results from herniation at the site of regression of the right umbilical vein 
C. It is caused by a failure of recanalization of the midgut part of the duodenum 
D. It is caused by failure of the midgut to return to the abdominal cavity after herniation into the umbilical stalk 

10. Which of the following nerves would be spared from infection in the cavernous sinus
A. Abducens nerves 
B. Trochlear nerves 
C. Mandibular nerves 
D. Ophthalmic nerves 

Physiology
11. Which of the following conditions increasesthe risk of fasting hypoglycemia?
A. Adrenocortical insufficiency 
B. Severe hypothyroidism 
C. Both A and B 
D. Acromegaly 

12. During muscle contraction, all of the following occur, except
A. ATP is hydrolyzed. 
B. Myosin heads bind to actin. 
C. The H band becomes shorter. 
D. Hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers increases. 

13. ATP metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting cell.
A. 25 
B. 50 
C. 70 
D. 95 

14. In healthy humans, iron in tissues other than red blood cells is stored principally in combination with:
A. ferritin 
B. transferrin 
C. hepcidin 
D. hemosiderin 

15. The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is
A. Active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. 
B. Active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 
C. Active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. 
D. Diffusion of calcium out of the cell. 

16. The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.
A. fast 
B. slow 
C. anaerobic 
D. intermediate 

17. Most pancreatic zymogens are activated in the duodenal lumen by:
A. enterokinase (enteropeptidase) 
B. trypsin 
C. trypsin activator protein 
D. All these 

18. Which of the following substances can be used as a marker for the ECF compartment?
A. Nonmetabolizable sugars 
B. Glucose 
C. Radio-iodinated albumin 
D. D2O 

19. Saccades are programmed in the:
A. frontal cortex 
B. medial longitudinal fasciculus 
C. A and B 
D. superior colliculus 

20. A muscle producing peak tension with rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in
A. Incomplete tetanus. 
B. Complete tetanus. 
C. Treppe. 
D. Wave summation. 

Biochemistry
21. Tryptophan loading test is done to detect the deficiency of
A. Folate 
B. PLP 
C. TPP 
D. Biotin 

22. Which of the following is not a type of signaling molecule?
A. Testosterone 
B. Insulin 
C. Thyroxin 
D. Adenylate cyclase 

23. Which of the following structures is expected in a bacterium?
A. Nucleus 
B. Plasma membrane 
C. Golgi apparatus 
D. Endoplasmic reticulum 

24. What is shielding in NMR?
A. Using a curved piece of metal to block an opponents attack 
B. Putting metal around an Rf source 
C. When the magnetic moment of an atom blocks the full induced magnetic field from surrounding nuclei 
D. Blocking parts of a molecule from Rf radiation 

25. At the midpoint of a temperature transition curve,
A. half of the protein is denatured 
B. Keq = 1.0 and ?G = 0 
C. [Native] = [Unfolded] 
D. All of these 

26. Sex lethal (sxl) in Drosophila is transcribed when
A. the X autosome balance is less than 0.5 
B. the X autosome balance is 1 or greater 
C. the X autosome balance equals 0.5 
D. none of the above 

27. Which of the following organic groups are found in naturally occuring amino acids?
A. Guanidinium ion 
B. Indole 
C. Imidazole 
D. All of these 

28. The pH of a solution is determined by
A. concentration of salt 
B. relative concentration of acids and bases 
C. dielectric constant of the medium 
D. environmental effect 

29. Carbon skeleton of all of the following amino acids enter the TCA cycle at the level of ?-keto glutarate, EXCEPT
A. Proline 
B. Methionine 
C. Arginine 
D. Histidine 

30. During co-translational synthesis of selenocysteine, tRNASec is initially charged with
A. Selenocysteine 
B. Serine 
C. Cysteine 
D. Methionine 

Pathology
31. Sero-fibrinous inflammation of the pericardium is most likely to be :
A. Acute idiopathic pericarditis 
B. Pneumococcal pericarditis 
C. Rheumatic pericarditis 
D. Tuberculous pericarditis 

32. Calcification of media is most related to :
A. Atherosclerosis 
B. Monckeberg's sclerosis 
C. Diffuse arteriolar sclerosis 
D. Thrombotic sclerosis 

33. The term necrobiosis implies :
A. Sudden necrosis 
B. Necrosis followed by degeneration 
C. Extensive necrosis 
D. Necrosis preceded by degeneration 

34. Which of the following factors in morphogenic as well as mitogenic?
A. Fibroblast growth factor 
B. Platelet derived growth factor 
C. Bone morphogenetic protein 
D. Insulin-like growth factor 

35. Histopathologically, rosettes are not seen in
A. Retinoblastoma 
B. Neurocysticercosis 
C. PNET 
D. Medulloblastoma 

36. Massive liver cell necrosis may be caused by protein deficiency superimposed on depletion of :
A. Vitamin A 
B. Vitamin B 
C. Vitamin D 
D. Vitamin E 

37. The most important cause of oedema in nephrotic syndrome is :
A. Hypoproteinaemia 
B. Increased capillary permeability 
C. Increased hydrostatic pressure of blood 
D. Lymphatic obstruction 

38. Primary granular contracted kidney is characteristic of :
A. Benign hypertensive nephrosclerosis 
B. Malignant hypertensive nephrosclerosis 
C. Senile nephrosclerosis 
D. Chronic glomerulonephritis 

39. Lazarine leprosy is a variant of :
A. Lepromatous leprosy 
B. Tuberculoid leprosy 
C. Indeterminate leprosy 
D. Dimorphic leprosy 

40. Through the process of suppuration, the body :
A. gets rid of dead material 
B. limits the area of inflammation 
C. destroys the irritant factor 
D. imprisons the foreign body 

Microbiology
41. Removal of solids is generally considered as a
A. Primary treatment 
B. Secondary treatment 
C. Tertiary treatment 
D. None of these 

42. More spoilage of eggs is caused by
A. bacteria than molds 
B. molds than bacteria 
C. synergistically 
D. none of these 

43. Which of the following genera is included in the family Bacteroi-daceae?
A. Bacteroides 
B. Fusobacterium 
C. Leptotrichia 
D. All of these 

44. Precipitation reaction is relatively less sensitive for the detection of
A. antigens 
B. antigen-antibody complexes 
C. antibodies 
D. complement 

45. Which of the antibiotic is not used as a food preservative ?
A. Pimaricin 
B. Nisin 
C. Tylosin 
D. ß-lactam antibiotic 

46. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are
A. arrangement of microtubules 
B. length and location of basal bodies 
C. how the microtubules are fused to each other 
D. number, length and direction of force 

47. Yeast are most likely to grow in frozen fruits during
A. slow thawing 
B. refrigeration 
C. ambient temperature 
D. none of these 

48. Which of the following is used for the proper maintenance and preservation of pure cultures?
A. Periodic transfer to fresh media 
B. Preservation by overlaying cultures with mineral oil 
C. Preservation by lyophilization 
D. All of the above 

49. Saprozoic nutrition is characterized by
A. phagocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles 
B. pinocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles 
C. encystment of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of secretory vacuoles 
D. pinocytosis of soluble nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles 

50. Which of the following is an abiotic elicitors?
A. UV irradiation 
B. Osmotic shock 
C. Heavy metal ions 
D. All of these 

Pharmacology
51. Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?
A. ?1 
B. ?2 
C. ?1 
D. ?2 

52. All of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors EXCEPT:
A. Pantoprozole 
B. Omeprazole 
C. Famotidine 
D. Rabeprazole 

53. The following substances are considered to be referred to as eicosanoids:
A. Prostaglandins 
B. Leukotrienes 
C. Thromboxanes 
D. All of these 

54. Atropine antagonises the action of acetylcholine by :
A. Chemical interaction leading to destruction of acetyl choline 
B. Chemical union leading to inactivation 
C. Opposite effect on the motor nerve plate 
D. Competitive inhibition of the action of acetylcholine on motor nerve plate 

55. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
A. Tolerance 
B. Tachyphylaxis 
C. Accumulation 
D. Synergism 

56. Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist?
A. Labetalol 
B. Phentolamine 
C. Metoprolol 
D. Propranolol 

57. On a graded dose-response curve (or drug-receptor curve in a laboratory), at what point does response increase the most rapidly?
A. Initially 
B. At EC50 
C. At LD50 
D. At 90% maximal response efficacy (Emax) 

58. Indicate an antiseizure drug, which has an impotent effect on the T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons?
A. Carbamazepin 
B. Lamotrigine 
C. Ethosuximide 
D. Phenytoin 

59. Which of the following physiologic signs is a characteristic of cannabis intoxication?
A. Bradycardia 
B. Reddening of the conjunctiva 
C. Miosis 
D. Nausea and vomiting 

60. Bactericidal effect is:
A. Inhibition of bacterial cell division 
B. Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth 
C. Destroying of bacterial cells 
D. Formation of bacterial L-form 

Forensic medicine
61. Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is –
A. Trophozoites 
B. Sporozoites 
C. Merozoites 
D. Gametocytes 

62. Primary impact injuries are commonly seen on:
A. Abdomen 
B. Legs 
C. Chest 
D. Head 

63. Sentence of death is passed in which judicial court:
A. Assistant session court 
B. Supreme court 
C. session court 
D. High court  

64. While taking dying declaration, a doctor should
A. Note down the declaration, 
B. Arrange for the witness. 
C. Call magistrate, 
D. Testify the statements made under sound mind,  

65. 25 year old labourer 3 years back presented with penile ulcer not treate Later he presented with neurological symptoms for which he got treate Test to monitor response to treatment is –
A. VDRL 
B. TPI 
C. RPR 
D. FTA ABS 

66. Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is –
A. Merozoites 
B. Trophozoites 
C. Gametocytes 
D. Sporozoites 

67. A teacher slapped a 6th standard student after which she suffered from 25% hearing loss in left ear. This was corrected after a surgery. Which type of injury is this?
A. Simple 
B. Serious 
C. Dangerous 
D. Grievous 

68. The characteristic burnt rope odour is caused by toxin of
A. Cannabis 
B. Tobacco 
C. Strychnine 
D. Chloral hydrate 

69. Alkali is neutralized by
A. Sulphuric Acid, 
B. Hydrochloric Acid, 
C. Nitric Acid, 
D. Vinegar  

70. Section IPC 377 deals with –
A. Incest 
B. Unnatural sex offenses 
C. Adultery 
D. Rape 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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