Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
A fresh Mock Paper is generated every time you open this page and every time you refresh it.For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :
1. Sibson's fascia is attached to the
A. Inner border of first rib
B. Outer border of second rib
C. Outer border of first rib
D. Inner border of second rib
2. Paramesonephric ducts forms :
A. Appendix vesiculosa
C. Appendix epididymis
D. Appendix testes
3. Patient is found to have diminished pulses distally within the affected leg, which provides evidence of vascular disease. This is consistent with the long history of heavy smoking. Locations where arterial pulsations are readily palpable in the lower extremity include all the following except
A. Halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and symphysis pubis
B. Deep in the popliteal fossa when the knee is flexed
C. Behind the lateral malleolus
D. Between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus and the digitonun longus muscles
4. Persistent truncus arteriosus occurs due to
A. Failure of conotruncal ridge to fuse and descend towards the ventricles
B. Anterior displacement of aorticopulmonary septum
C. Aorticopulmonary septum not following its spiral course
D. Migration of neural crest cells towards truncal & bulbar ridges
5. Following statements describe Purkinje cells. Choose the untrue statement
A. Project inhthitory output to the vestibular nuclei
B. Are excited by dimbing fibres
C. Are inhibited by Basket cells
D. Project excitatory output to cerebellar nuclei
6. Total volume of CSF is :
A. 50 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 150 ml
D. 275 ml
7. Choose the correct statement about abducent nerve
A. Is the most slender cranial nerve
B. Enters the orbit with the tendinous ring
C. Lies medial to the intemat carotid artery in the cavemous sinus
D. Contains parasympathetic nerve fibres
8. Pupillary light reflex includes all except
A. Ganglion cells of retina
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Pretectal nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus
9. Facial nerve gives out secretomotor fibres to all of the following except
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Parotid gland
C. Submandibular gland
D. Nasal glands
10. Choose the correct statement regarding the endodermal derivatives of branchial arch pouches
A. First : Tympanic antrum
B. Second : Tubotympanic recess
C. Third : Ultimo branchial body
D. Fourth Inferior parathyroid
11. Which of the following statements regarding regulation of cell cycle is incorrect?
A. This serves to regulate transition of the cell from one phase of the cell cycle to the next.
B. At restriction points, cyclins always promote transition from G0 to S phase.
C. Defects in DNA synthesis normally allow progression from G2 to M phase.
D. Deficiency of p53 allows progression to M phase.
12. Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Recurrent lumbar puncture
C. Pseudotumor cerebri
13. Anterolateral cordotomy does not interfere with perception of:
A. fine touch
14. The representational hemisphere is concerned with:
A. spatiotemporal relations
C. recognition of faces
D. All these
15. The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension but do not shorten is called
16. A known amount of heavy water and inulin are injected intravenously into a healthy 35 year old male. The volume of distribution of heavy water and inulin were 36 liters and 12 liters respectively. Which of the following estimations is most likely?
A. Plasma volume is 6 liters.
B. Interstitial fluid volume is 6 liters.
C. ICF volume is 28 liters.
D. ECF volume is 12 liters.
17. Which of the following is not known to act via a G-protein coupled receptor in target cell membranes?
18. During normal pregnancy, which hormone(s) peak during the first trimester?
19. Physiologically, an intact innervated muscle can normally be made to contract by stimulation of which of the following neurons innervating that muscle?
A. ?-motor neurons
B. ?-motor neurons
C. ?-motor neurons
D. Either A or C
20. The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
A. Actin, myosin, and filaments.
B. A transverse tubule and terminal cisternae.
C. Filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres.
D. A bands, H bands, and I bands.
21. Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophorsis?
22. Homocystinuria is due to abnormal metabolism of
23. Taurine is produced from
24. The products of urea cycle are
A. 1 molecule of urea, 1 molecule of ammonia, 1 molecule of ATP and 1 molecule of fumaric acid
B. 1 molecule of fumaric acid, 1 molecule of urea, 1 molecule of AMP, 2 molecules of ADP
C. 1 molecule of aspartic acid, 1 molecule of ammonia, 1 molecule of fumaric acid, 1 molecule of ATP
D. None of the above
25. On the ribosome, mRNA binds
A. between the subunits
B. to the large subunit
C. to the small subunit
D. none of these
26. Which of the following two organelles look most alike structurally?
A. Nucleus and vesicle
B. Golgi apparatus and smooth endoplasmic reticulum ER
C. Vacuole and cytoskeleton
D. Lysosome and chloroplast
27. Restriction enzymes are named for
A. the person who discovered
B. the bacterium they are derived from
C. the viral DNA that they attack
D. none of the above
28. The IPTG is a gratuitous inducers of (ß-galactosidase, and x-gal is a chromogenic substrate. When a-complementation occurs which colour is produced?
D. No colour is produced
29. Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
30. During successful purification scheme, this may be expected that the
A. specific activity increases
B. specific activity decreases
C. number of proteins in the sample decreases
D. both (a) and (c)
31. Giardia Lamblia may be spread by the faecal-oral route to people from all of the following EXCEPT:
32. Under the conditions of stress, the differential leucocyte count shows :
A. Decrease in polymorphs
B. Increase in polymorphs
C. Decrease in lymphocytes
D. Decrease in eosinophils
33. Bacterial endocarditis is least likely to be caused by :
A. Staphylococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus albus
C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
34. The term most akin to phagocytosis is :
35. Most useful investigation in biliary cirrhosis :
C. Serum alkaline phosphatase
D. Serum acid phosphatase
36. Nephrolithiasis is predisposed by deficiency of :
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
37. With regard to eicosanoids
A. main action of LTB4 is to increase permeability.
B. PGE2 causes intense vasoconstriction.
C. permeability increase caused by LTD4 restricted to venules.
D. LTC4, LTD4, LTE4, are important vasodilators
38. Vitamin C deficiency results in
A. a decreased number of collagen fibres.
B. an increased elastin:collagen ratio.
C. formation of defective collagen fibres.
D. detachment of ribosomes in fibroblasts
39. Primary granular contracted kidney is characteristic of :
A. Benign hypertensive nephrosclerosis
B. Malignant hypertensive nephrosclerosis
C. Senile nephrosclerosis
D. Chronic glomerulonephritis
40. A 50- year old male presents with large bowel type diarrhea and rectal bleeding. On sigmoidoscopy, a cauliflower like growth is seen in the rectum. Colectomy specimen on histopathology shows adenocarcinom. Which of the following prognostic investigations is not required?
A. Microsatellite instability
B. c-myc mutations
C. EGFR mutations
D. k-RAS mutations
41. A bacterial food intoxication refers to
A. illness caused by presence of pathogens
B. food borne illness caused by the presence of a bacterial toxin formed in food
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
42. Flat sour spoilage of acid foods is caused by
A. B. coagulans
B. both A and B
43. Which of the following biochemical reaction is characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Production of pyocyanin
B. Oxidative utilization of glucose
C. Oxidase production
D. All of these
44. The manufacture of baker's yeast involve
A. S. cerevisiae
B. S. thermophillus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. none of these
45. Cheese cancer of Swiss and similar cheese is caused by
A. Oospora Crustacea
B. Oospora caseovorans
C. Oospora aurianticum
D. none of these
46. The bacteria which is novobiocin resistant is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. S epidermidis
C. S saprophyticus
D. None of these
47. In cellular metabolism, O2 is used
A. to provide electrons for photophosphorylation
B. in glycolysis
C. as a terminal electron acceptor
D. in the Krebs cycle
48. Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
A. Dry heat
C. Membrane filtration
49. The ability of B. coagulans to grow in tomato juice depends upon the
A. number of spores present
B. the availability of oxygen
C. the pH of the juice
D. all of these
50. Identify the bacteria which is oxidase-negative and catalase-positive?
51. Sulfonamides are effective against:
A. Bacteria and Chlamidia
D. All of these
52. Which of the following agents blocks the chloride channel directly?
53. Adverse effects of caffeine include all of the following EXCEPT:
D. Psychomotor excitation
54. Nephrotoxicity is seen with ? :
A. C.Mycophenolate mofetil
55. All of the following antimycobacterial drugs have a bactericidal effect, EXCEPT:
56. Sulphonylureas act by:
A. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
B. Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissues
C. Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis
D. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
57. The ingredient in a drug that causes a physiological response is called
58. Apart from its prophylactic value in influenza, amantadine is useful in the treatment of :
A. Disseminated sclerosis
C. Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy
59. Main contraindications of estrogens’ therapy include the following:
A. Estrogen-dependent neoplasmas such as carcinoma of the endometrium or carcinoma of the breast
B. Undiagnosed genital bleeding
C. Liver disease
D. All of these
60. Which of the magnesium preparation is the most preferable for I.V. injection
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Magnesium chloride
C. Magnesium glutamate
D. All of these
61. 25 year old man with 3 weeks fever presented with tricuspid valve vegetation. Most common cause is? MC cause of Endocorditis in I.V. drug abuses –
A. Candida albicans
B. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staph aureus
62. Which of the following is not true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A. Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation in males
B. All strains are highly sensitivity to penicillin
C. Some strains may cause disseminated disease
D. It is an exclusive human pathogen
63. 25 year old labourer 3 years back presented with penile ulcer not treate Later he presented with neurological symptoms for which he got treate Test to monitor response to treatment is –
C. FTA ABS
64. Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis?
65. Property of a 5th month foetus :
A. Size of the foetus 17.5-20 cm
B. Ossification centres start appearing, talus shows a centre of ossification which on transverse section looks like pin-point haernorrhagic spot
C. Ossification centre appears in the upper division of the sacrum
D. Eye-brows are absent
66. Section IPC 377 deals with –
C. Unnatural sex offenses
67. Caustic poison corrodes mucosa because of –
A. It has glue like action
B. It’s hygroscopic nature
C. It is programmed to stick
D. It has affinity for mucosa
68. Aconite poisoning causes all except:
A. Chest pain
B. Tingling and numbness
D. Increased BP
69. Split laceration resembles
A. Gun shot wound,
B. Incised wound,
70. Regarding campylobacterium jejuni not true is?
A. Most common cause of compylobacteriosis
B. Human is the only reservoir
C. Cause of Guillain Barre syndrome
D. Poultry is the cause of disease