Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
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For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

1. Following statements conceming chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
A. Carries secretomotor fibres to the submandibular gland 
B. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa 
C. Is a branch of facial nerve 
D. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers 

2. Part of orbicularis oculi that serves to keep the surface of cornea always moist is
A. Palpebral 
B. Orbital 
C. Lacrimal 
D. All these 

3. A patient has the ability to stand erect with eyes open but falls with closed eyes. The axonal pathway lesioned is
A. Dorsal spino-cerebellar 
B. Ventral spino-cerebellar 
C. Medial lemniscus 
D. Spinal lemniscus 

4. All is true about notochord except
A. Derived from mesoderm behveen prochordal plate and primitive pit 
B. Causes induction of the overlying ectoderm to form nervous system 
C. Becomes annulus fibrosus of adult intervertebral disc 
D. Remnants may persist and give rise to a chordoma 

5. Patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is
A. Hypogastric 
B. Pudendal 
C. Pelvic Splanchnic 
D. Sympathetic plexus 

6. Cornea lacks all EXCEPT
A. blood supply 
B. nerve supply 
C. lymphatics 
D. colour 

7. Gyrus occupying Broca's speech area is
A. superior frontal 
B. middle frontal 
C. inferior frontal 
D. superior temporal 

8. Branchial efferent column in pons innervates muscles of
A. larynx 
B. mastication 
C. pharynx 
D. eye 

9. Choose the incurred statement concerning pharyngeal plexus
A. Receives contributions from vagus nerve carrying cranial accessory nerve component 
B. Supplies all pharyngeal muscles except stylopharyngeus 
C. Supplies tensor tympani 
D. Supply palatoglossus 

10. Following statements describe anterior cruciate ligament. Choose the incorrect statement
A. Is attached to the anterior intercondylar area 
B. Passes posterolaterally towards femur 
C. Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia in flexed knee 
D. Prevents posterior displacement of femur on tibia 

11. The duration of action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber is typically:
A. 5 ms 
B. 25 ms 
C. 100 ms 
D. 250 ms 

12. A traveling nerve impulse does not depolarize the area immediately behind it because:
A. it is hyperpolarized 
B. the area immediately behind is refractory 
C. it is not self-propagating 
D. the conduction is always orthodromic 

13. Proprioceptive information reaches consciousness through the :
A. spinothalamic system 
B. dorsal column - medial lemniscal pathway 
C. spinocerebellar pathway 
D. A and B 

14. Which of the following transporters is present only in the sinusoidal membrane of hepatocytes?
A. Bile Salt Export Pump 
B. LDL-cholesterol receptors 
C. MDR 3 (Flippase) 
D. Multidrug Resistance associated Protein - 2 (MRP-2) 

15. Which of the following does not occur as a consequence of adrenalectomy?
A. Reduced alertness 
B. Increased vulnerability to hypotension 
C. Decreased ability to excrete a water load 
D. Glucose intolerance 

16. The functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the
A. Sarcolemma. 
B. Sarcomere. 
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum. 
D. Myofibril. 

17. Red blood cells from a healthy individual were placed in each of the following solutions and observations were made after 1 hour. Cells would have most likely have lysed when placed in:
A. 0.3% NaCl 
B. 0.9% NaCl 
C. 1.2% NaCl 
D. Any of these 

18. The procedure in which the hindbrain and the spinal cord are separated from the rest of the brain by transection at the superior border of pons is called:
A. decortication 
B. decerebration 
C. deafferentation 
D. rhizotomy 

19. Which of the following hormones has the highest mineralocorticoid activity?
A. Cortisol 
B. Corticosterone 
C. Deoxycorticosterone 
D. Cortisone 

20. An important non-respiratory function of lungs is:
A. Anion balance 
B. Sodium balance 
C. Potassium balance 
D. Calcium balance 

21. In active transport, the membrane structure that functions is
A. cholesterol 
B. integral proteins 
C. carbohydrates 
D. hydrophobic molecules 

22. Type I proteins (plasma membrane) have a
A. cleavage N- terminal signal sequence and a hydrophobic stop transfer sequence 
B. cleavaged N- terminal signal sequence that doubles as the membrane anchoring sequence 
C. multiple signal sequence and a hydrophobic stop transfer sequence 
D. multiple signal sequence that doubles as the membrane anchoring sequence 

23. What is meant by rotating frame of reference?
A. That the sample is spun rapidly in the applied field 
B. If the laboratory itself is imagined to be rotated at the Larmor frequency, viewing that individual magnetic moment vectors are fixed in space 
C. That the detector rotates around the sample 
D. None of the above 

24. HDLs are synthesized in
A. blood 
B. liver 
C. intestine 
D. pancreas 

25. Simple nerve reflexes use signaling molecules called
A. neurotransmitters 
B. nitric oxides 
C. G proteins 
D. proteases 

26. Papain digest IgG into
A. two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment 
B. three Fab fragments and two Fc fragments 
C. two Fab fragments and two Fc fragments 
D. three Fab fragments and three Fc fragments 

27. In Hartnup’s disease, the absorption of which of the following is defective?
A. Tryptophan 
B. Tyrosine 
C. Xanthurenic acid 
D. Homogentisic acid 

28. What is the specificity of the Clostripain protease?
A. It cleave after Arg residues 
B. It cleave after His residues 
C. It cleave after Lys residues 
D. None of the above 

29. What is the relationship between wavelength and wave number?
A. Wavenumber = 1 / wavelength in centimeters 
B. Wavenumber - wavelength in nanometers = 1 
C. Wavelength in nanometers x wavenumber = 1 
D. None of the above 

30. In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
A. AcetylCoA 
B. Pyruvate 
D. Glucose 

31. Anaemia in ankylostomiasis is most likely to resemble anaemia due to :
A. Pregnancy 
B. Excessive menstruation 
C. Haemolysis 
D. Malaria 

32. Reed-Sternberg cells are present in :
A. Tuberculosis 
B. Hodgkin's disease 
C. Syphilis 
D. Rheumetic carditis 

33. Venous thrombi most commonly arise from :
A. Pelvic Veins 
B. Renal veins 
C. Cavernous sinus 
D. Femoral veins 

34. Nephroblastoma is most likely to occur at the age of :
A. 2 years 
B. 12 years 
C. 20 years 
D. 50 years 

35. Vascular phenomenon in acute inflammation helps in :
A. Bringing the defensive cells like neutrophils from interior of the vessels to the site of irritation 
B. Miimizing the effect of irritant by diluting it considerably 
C. Limiting the inflammatory reaction to the smallest possible area 
D. All of these 

36. Pernicious anaemia is :
A. Microcytic hypochromic 
B. Microcytic normochromic 
C. Macrocytic hypochromic 
D. Macrocytic normochromic 

37. The Pulmonary alveoli are stuffed with blood. Their outlines are not visible as the alveolar walls are necrosed. Thrombosis of blood vessels is considerable. The findings are
A. Shock 
B. Myocardial ischaemia 
C. Pulmonary infarction 
D. Haemorrhagic pneumonia 

38. Severe haemolytic transfusion reactions commonly occur when
A. the transfused blood contains antibodies against the recipient cells.  
B. the recipient has a high titre of antibodies against the donor cells.  
C. Group A blood is transfused into Group AB recipients.  
D. Group O blood is transfused into Group A recipients 

39. Acute glomerulonephritis is least likely to be associated with :
A. Tonsillitis 
B. Dental sepsis 
C. Cervical adenitis 
D. Rheumatic carditis 

40. PNH is associated with deficiency of:
C. GPI Anchored protein 
D. All of the above 

41. In chilled shrimp __________ is chiefly responsible for spoilage.
A. Achromobacter 
B. Pseudomonas 
C. Micrococcus or Bacillus species 
D. Molds or yeasts 

42. Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
A. Dry heat 
B. Autoclave 
C. Membrane filtration 
D. Pasteurization 

43. The yoghurt is made from
A. Lactobacillus bulgaricus 
B. Streptococcus thermophilus 
C. S. cremoris 
D. mixed culture of A and B 

44. The virus(es) which can cause aseptic meningitis is/are
A. Polioviruses 
B. Coxsackieviruses 
C. Echo viruses 
D. All of these 

45. HIV can infect
A. Microglial cells 
B. M (membranous) cells 
C. CD4 + T lymphocytes 
D. All of these 

46. Cycloserine inhibits
A. alanine racemase 
B. D-alanyl - D-alanine synthetase 
C. Both A and B 
D. amidase 

47. Water activity can act as
A. an intrinsic factor determining the likelihood of microbial proliferation 
B. a processing factor 
C. an extrinsic factor 
D. all of the above 

48. The first penicillin isolated by Alexander Fleming, penicillin F is also called
A. 2-Pentenyl Penicillin 
B. n-heptyl penicillin 
C. phenoxymethyl penicillin 
D. benzyl penicillin 

49. Which of the following structure is absent in eukaryotic cells?
A. Mitochondria 
B. Chloroplasts 
C. Golgi structure 
D. Mesosome 

50. Both DNA and RNA are present in
A. Bacteria 
B. Prions 
C. Virioids 
D. Plasmid 

51. Tetracaine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
A. Slow onset 
B. Low potency 
C. Long duration 
D. High toxicity 

52. Drug not used in CHF is ? :
B. C.Spironolactone 
C. D.Trimetazidine 
D. Nisiritide 

53. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis 
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis 
C. Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis 
D. Inhibition of cell membranes permeability 

54. Neuromuscular blockade by both succinylcholine and mivacurium may be prolonged in patients with:
A. Renal failure 
B. An abnormal variant of plasma cholinesterase 
C. Hepatic disease 
D. Both B and C 

55. Insulin is a polypeptide hence:
A. It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice 
B. It is destroyed by gastric juice 
C. It is not a polypeptide 
D. It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes 

56. Indicate the drugs influencing the blood flow in the brain - derivatives of GABA:
A. Aminalon, Picamilon 
B. Nimodipine, Cinnarizine 
C. Heparin, Warfarin 
D. Vinpocetine, Nicergoline 

57. The drug is a blood substitute having haemodynamical activity:
A. Polyglucinum 
B. Haemodesum 
C. Sodium chloridum isotonic for injections 
D. "Disolum", "Trisolum" 

58. Vasopressin causes a pressor effect by:
A. Releasing noradrenaline from the nerve terminals 
B. Releasing and activating renin-angiotensin system 
C. A direct action on smooth muscles of the blood vessels 
D. All of these mechanisms 

59. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:
A. Ampicillin 
B. Bicillin-5 
C. Aztreonam 
D. Imipinem 

60. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
A. Drug dependence 
B. Increased metabolic degradation 
C. Depressed renal drug excretion 
D. Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass 

Forensic medicine
61. Regarding campylobacterium jejuni not true is?
A. Most common cause of compylobacteriosis 
B. Human is the only reservoir 
C. Cause of Guillain Barre syndrome 
D. Poultry is the cause of disease 

62. All of the following are seen in Antemortem burns except ?
A. Inflammatory Red line 
B. Vesicle with hyperemic base 
C. Pus formation 
D. Vesicle with Air 

63. Colour changes of putrefaction are first observed in the :
A. Iliac fossae 
B. Popliteal fossae 
C. Cubital fossae 
D. Arms 

64. A doctor is treating a patient with viper snake bite. He should not forget that viper venom is
A. Histotoxic 
B. Vasculotoxic 
C. Musculotoxic 
D. Neurotoxic 

65. Property of a 3rd month foetus :
A. Foetus well developed 7.5-10 cm long 
B. Neck is formed 
C. Limbs well-developed 
D. Sex differentiation possible. 

66. About H. Influenza all true except –
A. Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence 
B. Requires factor X and V for growth 
C. M. invasive disease of H influenza is meningitis 
D. Rarely presents as meningitis in children less than 2 months of age 

67. While taking dying declaration, a doctor should
A. Arrange for the witness. 
B. Call magistrate, 
C. Testify the statements made under sound mind,  
D. Note down the declaration, 

68. Symptom of syncope :
A. Pallor of face or lips 
B. Skin cold and clammy 
C. Sense of sinking and restlessness 
D. Rapid thready pulse 

69. Split laceration resembles
A. Gun shot wound, 
B. Incised wound,  
C. Contusion 
D. Abrasion, 

70. Aconite poisoning causes all except:
A. Tingling and numbness 
B. Increased BP 
C. Chest pain 
D. Hypersalivation 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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