Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
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For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

Anatomy
1. Which of the following reach Ventro postero-medial thalamic nuclei
A. Solitario-thalamic 
B. Dentatothalamic 
C. Spinothalamic 
D. Medial lemniscus 

2. All is true about accessory nerve except
A. Cranial part belongs to SVE column 
B. Spinal part supplies sternomastoid and trapezius 
C. Cranial part supplies all pharyngeal muscles except palatopharyngeus 
D. Cranial part supplies all palatal muscles except tensor veli palate 

3. Transverse arch of foot is maintained by
A. Flexor digitorum brevis 
B. Adductor hallucis 
C. Abductor hallucis brevis 
D. Peroneus brevis 

4. The following joint permits to do ‘NO’ movement of head
A. Atlanto-occipital joint 
B. Atlanto-axial joint 
C. C2-C3 joint 
D. C3-C4 joint 

5. Regarding Gastroschisis and omphalocele, which one is false
A. Intestinal obstruction is common in gastroschisis 
B. Liver is the content of omphalocele 
C. Gastroschisis is associated with multiple anomalies 
D. Umbilical cord is attached in normal position in gastroschisis 

6. Action of Teres Major is
A. Adduction & lateral rotation 
B. Adduction & medial rotation 
C. Abduction & lateral rotation 
D. Abduction & medial rotation 

7. Following are the rotators of thigh. Choose the incorrect pair
A. Medial rotators: Tensor fascia latae & gluteus minimus 
B. Lateral rotators: Piriformis & gluteus maximus 
C. Medial rotators: Gluteus maximus & quadratus femoris 
D. Lateral rotators: Gamelli & obturators 

8. Skeleton of the heart is:
A. bony 
B. cartilaginous 
C. fibrous 
D. heart has no skeleton 

9. It leaves the posterior end of the S.A node and passes to the posterior of the vena caval opening:
A. anterior internodal pathway 
B. middle internodal pathway 
C. posterior internodal pathway 
D. None of these 

10. Which of the following is not supplied by hypoglossal nerve
A. Genio-hyoid 
B. Thyrohyoid 
C. Genio-glossus 
D. Palato-glossus 

Physiology
11. Feedforward inhibition has been well described in neural circuits in the:
A. spinal cord 
B. cerebellum 
C. stretch reflexes 
D. nociceptive pathway 

12. If intracellular and extracellular calcium are 2 millimoles per liter and 100 nanomoles per liter, the ratio of intracellular and extracellular calcium is approximately:
A. 200 
B. 2000 
C. 20000 
D. 200000 

13. The number of Na channels per square micrometer of membrane in myelinated mammalian neurons is maximum in the:
A. cell body 
B. dendritic zone 
C. initial segment 
D. node of Ranvier 

14. The core body temperature of an experimental animal is raised from 98ºF to 106ºF by passive heating. Eventually, it dropped to 99ºF. What is the gain of the temperature regulation system in this instance?
A. Zero 
B. One 
C. -7 
D. Infinity 

15. Most of the T3 in the liver is formed from circulating T4 by the action of:
A. type 1 deiodinase (D1) 
B. type 2 deiodinase (D2) 
C. type 3 deiodinase (D3) 
D. All these 

16. In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
A. Acetylcholine. 
B. Sodium ions. 
C. Potassium ions. 
D. Calcium ions  

17. The latch-bridge mechanism in smooth muscle is responsible for:
A. fast muscle twitch 
B. sustained muscle contraction 
C. excitation-contraction coupling 
D. unstable membrane potential 

18. If light reflex is present and the accommodation reflex absent, then the lesion is most likely in the:
A. pretectal nucleus 
B. ganglion cells 
C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus 
D. visual cortex 

19. Gap junctions are made up of a protein called:
A. connexin 
B. clathrin 
C. cadherin 
D. calcineurin 

20. Which of the following changes occur in rod cells when rhodopsin is activated by light?
A. Increase in cGMP 
B. Deactivation of phosphodiesterase 
C. Depolarization of rod cells 
D. Decreased release of neurotransmitter 

Biochemistry
21. Not an intermediate product of citric acid cycle is
A. Acyl CoA 
B. Succinyl CoA 
C. Citrate 
D. ?-ketoglutarate 

22. Which of the following enzyme is not used by the urea cycle?
A. CPS-I 
B. CPS-II 
C. Arginase 
D. Argininosuccinase 

23. A biological redox reaction always involves
A. an oxidizing agent 
B. a gain of electrons 
C. a reducing agent 
D. all of these 

24. All of the following are derived from tyrosine, EXCEPT
A. Norepinephrine 
B. Melatonin 
C. Thyroxine 
D. Dopamine 

25. In Hartnup’s disease, the absorption of which of the following is defective?
A. Tryptophan 
B. Tyrosine 
C. Xanthurenic acid 
D. Homogentisic acid 

26. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH during
A. light dependent reactions 
B. photorespiration 
C. calvin cylcle 
D. none of these 

27. Coupling causes the peaks in 1H NMR spectra to be split into
A. two peaks 
B. multiple peaks equal to the number of hydrogens on surrounding atoms 
C. multiple peaks equal to the number of surrounding carbon atoms 
D. multiple peaks equal to the number of hydrogen on surrounding atoms, plus one 

28. Which of the following is used as carbon atom source while producing urea in the urea cycle?
A. Arginine 
B. Aspartic acid 
C. Carbon dioxide 
D. Glucose 

29. Which of the following detectors give concentration-dependent signals?
A. Electron-capture detector 
B. Thermal conductivity 
C. Infra-red detector 
D. All of these 

30. The genetic code is
A. universal 
B. universal except for rare exceptions in mitochondria and some protozoa 
C. species-specific 
D. kingdom-specific 

Pathology
31. Foreign body giant cells are seen in :
A. Tuberculosis 
B. Syphilis 
C. Actinomycosis 
D. All of these 

32. Which of the following is a marker of langerhans cell histiocytosis?
A. CD 1a 
B. CD 10 
C. CD 30 
D. CD56 

33. Primary cause of edema in Nephrotic Syndrome is
A. Na+ and Water retention 
B. Increased venous pressure 
C. Protein Loss 
D. Hyperlipidemia 

34. Oedema is caused by fall in plasma proteins below :
A. 0.5% 
B. 5% 
C. 15% 
D. 50% 

35. Down's syndrome (Mongolism) is due to trisomy of chromosome number :
A. 15 
B. 17 
C. 19 
D. 21 

36. Mucus is a combination of mucopolysaccharides with :
A. Minerals 
B. Proteins 
C. Connective tissue 
D. Starch 

37. Dry gangrene results from :
A. Dehydration 
B. Occlusion of vein 
C. Occlusion of artery 
D. Chemical toxin 

38. The chemical mediator NOT responsible for chemotaxis is
A. cytokines.  
B. C5a.  
C. bradykinin.  
D. bacterial products 

39. Most common mechanism of GERDA.
A. Transient decrease in pressure at LES 
B. Hypotension at lower esophageal sphincter 
C. Hiatus Hernia 
D. Gastritis 

40. Which of the following is not an example of a syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
A. Prader-Willi syndrome 
B. Angelman syndrome 
C. Russell-Silver syndrome  
D. Bloom syndrome 

Microbiology
41. Which of the following bacteria is susceptible to thiophen-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide?
A. M bovis 
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
C. M chelonei 
D. M fortuitum 

42. The filtering medium of trickling filters is coated with microbial flora, known as
A. zoological film 
B. geological film 
C. zooglocal film 
D. none of these 

43. Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction?
A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses 
B. Hepatitis B virus 
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
D. All of these 

44. Which of the following was the first amino acid to be produced commercially?
A. L-glutamic acid 
B. L-lysine 
C. L-cystine 
D. L-methionine 

45. The bacteria which is novobiocin resistant is
A. Staphylococcus aureus 
B. S epidermidis 
C. S saprophyticus 
D. None of these 

46. The efficiency of amplification in PCR in later cycles is reduced due to
A. reduction in substrate concentration 
B. insufficient enzyme and time to synthesize mass quantity of DNA 
C. build up of PCR product which competes with primers for hybrid formation 
D. all of these 

47. Viral infections frequently observed in HIV disease is /are
A. herpes simplex 
B. varicella- zoster 
C. cytomegalo virus 
D. all of these 

48. The staphylococcal intoxication refers to presence of
A. an enterotoxin 
B. neurotoxin 
C. mycotoxin 
D. All of these 

49. Which one is not studied in microbiology?
A. Bacteria 
B. Animal behaviour 
C. Fungi 
D. Algae 

50. Parsnip like odour and taste in beer is caused by
A. Flavobacterium proteus 
B. Zygomonas anaeroium 
C. Lactobacillus patorianus 
D. S. carlsbergensis 

Pharmacology
51. Which of the following antianginal agents is a calcium channel blocker?
A. Nitroglycerin 
B. Dipyridamole 
C. Minoxidil 
D. Nifedipine 

52. Furosemide (Lasix) acts at this nephron site:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule 
B. Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle 
C. Distal convoluted tubule 
D. Collecting duct 

53. A chronic, proliferative phase, of inflammation is characterized by:
A. Local vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability (phase of damage) 
B. Infiltration of leucocytes and phagocytic cells (phase of exudation) 
C. Tissue degeneration and fibrosis occurrence (phase of proliferation) 
D. All of these 

54. Which of the following local anesthetics is only used for surface or topical anesthesia?
A. Cocaine 
B. Tetracaine 
C. Procaine 
D. Bupivacaine 

55. The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is usually over a period of:
A. 2-3 days 
B. 2-3 weeks 
C. 24 hours 
D. 2-3 month 

56. Characteristics of reserpine include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. It inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine into vesicles and MAO 
B. It decreases cardiac output, peripheral resistance and inhibits pressor reflexes 
C. It may cause a transient sympathomimetic effect 
D. It depletes stores of catecholamines and serotonin in the brain 

57. This drug is converted to an active metabolite after absorption:
A. Labetalol 
B. Clonidine 
C. Enalapril 
D. Nifedipine 

58. Muscarinic receptors
A. stimulate smooth muscles. 
B. stimulate skeletal muscles. 
C. increase the heart rate. 
D. All of these 

59. Flumazenil blocks the actions of:
A. Phenobarbital 
B. Morphine 
C. Zolpidem 
D. Ethanol 

60. Rifampin has the following unwanted effect:
A. Dizziness, headache 
B. Loss of hair 
C. Flu-like syndrome, tubular necrosis 
D. Hepatotoxicity 

Forensic medicine
61. Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is –
A. Merozoites 
B. Trophozoites 
C. Gametocytes 
D. Sporozoites 

62. A girl coming with kerosene like odour on breath, lacrimation, pin point pupil, rhinorrhea, weakness. Which statement is false:
A. Atropine is the antidote 
B. Plasma AChesterase has no prognostic value 
C. Atropine reverses neuromuscular weakness 
D. Activated charwal has no proven beneits}C 

63. Regarding clostridium perfringens gas gangrene false is?
A. Most important toxin is hyaluronidase 
B. Naegler reaction positive 
C. Clostridium perfringens is the most common cause of gas gangrene 
D. Food poisoning strains of clostridium perfringens produces heatresistant spores 

64. Regarding campylobacterium jejuni not true is?
A. Most common cause of compylobacteriosis 
B. Human is the only reservoir 
C. Cause of Guillain Barre syndrome 
D. Poultry is the cause of disease 

65. Caustic poison corrodes mucosa because ?
A. It has glue like action 
B. It has affinity for mucosa 
C. It is programmed to stick 
D. It is hygroscopic 

66. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and lose of appetite. The most likely poisoning is:
A. Mercury 
B. Lead 
C. Phosphorus 
D. Arsenic 

67. Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis?
A. Phenobarbitone 
B. Pethidine 
C. Atropine 
D. Scopolamine 

68. Putrefaction occurs over the caecal area after around
A. 24-28 hours 
B. 1-24 hours 
C. 12 hours 
D. 3 days 

69. Choking is seen in
A. Revolver 
B. Pistol 
C. Shotgun 
D. Rifle 

70. Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis?
A. Atropine 
B. Phenobarbitone 
C. Scopolamine 
D. Pethidine 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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