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Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr K Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
A fresh Mock Paper is generated every time you open this page and every time you refresh it.
For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

Anatomy
1. Which of the following is not supplied by hypoglossal nerve
A. Genio-hyoid 
B. Thyrohyoid 
C. Genio-glossus 
D. Palato-glossus 

2. All of the following form the anterior relations of thoracic part of trachea, except
A. Manubrium stemi 
B. Left branchiophalic vein 
C. Arch of aorta 
D. Azygos vein 

3. Superior thyroid artery is a branch of
A. External carotid artery 
B. Internal carotid artery 
C. Subclavian artery 
D. Facial artery 

4. Absence of conotruncal septum gives rise to
A. Tetralogy of Fallot 
B. Patent truncus arteriosus 
C. Transposition of great vessels 
D. Coarctation of aorta 

5. The veins that drain the external genitalia are
A. Superficial external pudendal vein 
B. Deep external pudendal vein 
C. A and B 
D. Superficial epigastric vein 

6. Following muscles produce medial rotation of humerus EXCEPT;
A. pectoralis major 
B. pectoralis minor 
C. subscapularis 
D. lattisimus dorsi 

7. Teres minor is supplied by nerve
A. Suprascapular 
B. Axillary 
C. Muscutocutaneous 
D. Thoracodorsal 

8. Commonest position of appendix is
A. retrocaecal 
B. sub caecal 
C. pelvic 
D. preileal 

9. In coronary collateral circulation, where is VIEUSSEN's RING?
A. Between the right and left coronary trunks 
B. Between infundibular branch of right coronary artery and a similar branch of left coronary artery 
C. Between the trunks of great and small cardiac veins 
D. Between thebesian veins 

10. Intestinal obstruction caused by Ca colon most likely involves
A. Caecum 
B. Ascending colon 
C. Transverse colon 
D. Sigmoid colon 

Physiology
11. What is the amplification provided by the lever action of the auditory ossicles and the large size of the tympanic membrane compared to the oval window?
A. 5 times 
B. 10 times 
C. 22 times 
D. 45 times 

12. Removal of the liver is fatal because:
A. blood urea rises 
B. jaundice develops 
C. clotting time is prolonged 
D. progressive hypoglycemia occurs 

13. ADH circulates in plasma primarily:
A. bound to neurophysin I 
B. bound to neurophysin II 
C. bound to plasma albumin 
D. not bound to plasma proteins 

14. The principal receptor mediating proprioception is:
A. muscle spindle 
B. Golgi tendon organ 
C. C mechanoreceptor 
D. joint capsule receptor 

15. Which of the following enzymes protects the fetus from hyperthyroidism when the mother is hyperthyroid?
A. Type I deiodinase (5' deiodinase); outer ring deiodinase 
B. Type 2 deiodinase (3' deiodinase) 
C. Type 3 deiodinase (3,3,5 - deiodinase); inner ring deiodinase 
D. Iodotyrosine deiodinase 

16. The normal rate of bile salt synthesis is:
A. 0.05 - 0.1 g/day 
B. 0.2 - 0.4 g/day 
C. 0.8 - 1.2 g/day 
D. 2 - 2.5 g/day 

17. The receptor for the stretch reflex is the:
A. muscle spindle 
B. Golgi tendon organ 
C. Pacinian corpuscle 
D. None of these 

18. Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following, except
A. Fatigue. 
B. An oxygen debt. 
C. An increase in intracellular glycogen. 
D. A shift to more anaerobic glycolysis in the muscle. 

19. Which of the following neurotransmitters has both excitatory and inhibitory effects?
A. Aspartate 
B. GABA 
C. Glutamate 
D. Glycine 

20. Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue and increased muscle mass?
A. Epinephrine. 
B. Thyroid hormone. 
C. Testosterone. 
D. Parathyroid hormone. 

Biochemistry
21. Which of the following is not part of the lac operon?
A. I 
B. O 
C. P 
D. none of these 

22. The type II restriction endonucleases, bind to DNA sites
A. using H-bonds for specificity 
B. that are usually palindromic 
C. using non-sequence-dependent backbone interactions 
D. all of the above 

23. Which of the following is the reduced form of a temporary electron carrier molecule?
A. FADH2 
B. ATP 
C. NADP+ 
D. CO2 

24. Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) cannot bind to the oxygenated R state of hemoglobin because
A. it is displaced from the heme by oxygen 
B. it is displaced from the heme by movement of the proximal histidine 
C. its binding pocket becomes too small to accommodate BPG 
D. BPG binds to the R state with the same affinity as the T state 

25. When the amino acid alanine (R-group is CH3) is added to a solution with a pH of 7.3, alanine becomes
A. a cation 
B. nonpolar 
C. a zwitterions 
D. an isotope 

26. In active transport, the membrane structure that functions is
A. cholesterol 
B. integral proteins 
C. carbohydrates 
D. hydrophobic molecules 

27. Promoters for tRNAs are located
A. upstream from the start codon 
B. downstream from the start codon 
C. both (a) and (b) 
D. none of these 

28. The genetic code is
A. universal 
B. universal except for rare exceptions in mitochondria and some protozoa 
C. species-specific 
D. kingdom-specific 

29. For a molecule to absorb IR, why must the molecule's vibrations cause fluctuations in the dipole moment of the molecule?
A. Because a change in dipole moment lowers the energy required for electronic transitions 
B. Because for absorption to occur, the radiation must interact with the electric field caused by changing dipole moment 
C. Because fluctuations in the dipole moment allow the molecule to deform by bending and stretching 
D. All of the above 

30. Polyprotic acids such as H3PO4, can act as acid-base buffers
A. only in combination with polyprotic bases 
B. if their concentration is kept low 
C. at pH values around neutrality 
D. at pH values around any of their pKa's 

Pathology
31. In Barrett's Esophagus
A. Intestinal Metaplasia 
B. Intestinal Dysplasia 
C. Gastric Dysplasia 
D. Squamous Metaplasia 

32. A synonym for amyloidosis is :
A. alpha-fibrillosis 
B. beta-fibrillosis 
C. gamma-fibrillosis 
D. Cysteinosis 

33. Verocay bodies are seen in
A. Meningioma 
B. Hemangioma 
C. Glioma 
D. Schwannoma 

34. What is the most important role of Bradykinin in acute inflammation?
A. Increase in vascular permeability 
B. Vasodilatation 
C. Mediation of pain 
D. Bronchoconstriction 

35. The Pulmonary alveoli are stuffed with blood. Their outlines are not visible as the alveolar walls are necrosed. Thrombosis of blood vessels is considerable. The findings are
A. Shock 
B. Myocardial ischaemia 
C. Pulmonary infarction 
D. Haemorrhagic pneumonia 

36. Hyaline material consists of :
A. Lipoproteins 
B. Protein-carbohydrate complexes 
C. Vibrinogen derivatives 
D. Precipitated Plasma proteins 

37. One week following an injection of aqueous penicillin, a patient develops joint pains, a red, pruritic skin rash, fever and lymphadenopathy. Presuming that the diagnosis of serum sickness is correct:
A. the antibody involved is probably Ig  
B. the antibody involved is probably IgA.  
C. no antibody is involved, since this syndrome is secondary to a cell-mediated immune reaction.  
D. the serum concentration of complement would be decrease  

38. Ductus arteriosus gets obliterated during intra-uterine life during about :
A. Third week 
B. Ninth week 
C. Fifteenth week 
D. Twenty-first week 

39. Under the conditions of stress, the differential leucocyte count shows :
A. Decrease in polymorphs 
B. Increase in polymorphs 
C. Decrease in lymphocytes 
D. Decrease in eosinophils 

40. In order to form a tumour, the cells must undergo :
A. Inflammation 
B. Hypertrophy 
C. Oedema 
D. Proliferation 

Microbiology
41. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are
A. arrangement of microtubules 
B. length and location of basal bodies 
C. how the microtubules are fused to each other 
D. number, length and direction of force 

42. The causative agent of Buruli ulcer is
A. M chelonei 
B. M marinum 
C. M fortuitum 
D. M ulcerarts 

43. Water activity can act as
A. an intrinsic factor determining the likelihood of microbial proliferation 
B. a processing factor 
C. an extrinsic factor 
D. all of the above 

44. The predominant micro-organisms in frozen foods are
A. bacteria 
B. micro-coccus 
C. yeast and moulds 
D. none of these 

45. Living organisms have many complex characteristics. Which one of the following is shared by non-living matter as well?
A. Homeostasis 
B. Tissues 
C. Reproduction 
D. Molecules 

46. The bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to which of the following fungal divisions?
A. Ascomycota 
B. Deuteromycota 
C. Oomycota 
D. Zygomycota 

47. Enzymes are
A. organic compounds produced by living organism 
B. inorganic compounds 
C. organic as well as inorganic compounds 
D. all of these 

48. A bacterial food intoxication refers to
A. illness caused by presence of pathogens 
B. food borne illness caused by the presence of a bacterial toxin formed in food 
C. both A and B 
D. none of the above 

49. The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are
A. Streptococci 
B. Diplococci 
C. Tetracocci 
D. None of these 

50. Which of the following reflects the correct order of events that take place during the multiplication of a virus?
A. Attachment, penetration, maturation, biosynthesis, release 
B. Penetration, attachment, biosynthesis, maturation, release 
C. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release 
D. Attachment, release, biosynthesis, maturation, penetration 

Pharmacology
51. Select the agent, which is preferred in the treatment of the drug-induced form of parkinsonism:
A. Levodopa 
B. Bromocriptine 
C. Benztropine 
D. Dopamine 

52. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
A. Refractoriness 
B. Cumulative effect 
C. Tolerance 
D. Tachyphylaxis 

53. Compared with tetracycline, chloramphenicol is more effective in typhoid fever but ineffective in :
A. Entamoeba histolytica 
B. E. coli 
C. Streptococcus aureus 
D. Pseudomonas 

54. Choose the group of antihypertensive drugs which diminishes the metabolism of bradykinin:
A. Ganglioblockers 
B. Alfa-adrenoblockers 
C. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors 
D. Diuretics 

55. The pharmacokinetic phase is
A. the form of the drug. 
B. the way the drug is absorbed, distributed, and eliminated. 
C. the effect the drug has on the body. 
D. None of these 

56. Side effect of cyclosporine A is:
A. Diarrhea 
B. Headache 
C. GI disturbance 
D. Immunosuppression 

57. Which of the following adverse effects (side-effects) is NOT commonly seen with cholinergic antagonists?
A. Blurred vision 
B. Confusion 
C. Miosis 
D. Constipation 

58. A few cases of submyelo-opticoneuropathy lead to controversy over use of an important antiamoebic :
A. Diiodohydroxyquinoline 
B. Metronidazole 
C. Furazolidone 
D. Phanquone 

59. ?2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?
A. K+ 
B. Ca++ 
C. Cl- 
D. Na+ 

60. HIV is transmitted via
A. injection of infected blood or blood products. 
B. sexual contact. 
C. maternal–fetal transmission. 
D. All of these 

Forensic medicine
61. Basophillic stippling is seen in:
A. RBC  
B. WBC 
C. Basophil 
D. Neutrophilis 

62. Hegar's sign is meant for detection of
A. Sterility 
B. Virginity 
C. Pregnancy 
D. Dead foetus 

63. Property of a 7th month foetus:
A. Size of the foetus about 35 cm 
B. Ossification centre appears in calcaneum 
C. Eyes can be opened and eye-lashes start forming 
D. Vernix caseosa present 

64. A teacher slapped a 6th standard student after which she suffered from 25% hearing loss in left ear. This was corrected after a surgery. Which type of injury is this?
A. Dangerous 
B. Grievous 
C. Serious 
D. Simple 

65. A 7 year presented with intermittent abdominal cramps, loose stool and on stool examination ova of size 100 micrometre is seen. Which is not the cause?
A. Echinostorum ileocaxnum 
B. Gastrodiscoides hominis 
C. Opisthorcis viverrani 
D. Fasciola gigantic 

66. Regarding clostridium perfringens gas gangrene false is?
A. Food poisoning strains of clostridium perfringens produces heatresistant spores 
B. Most important toxin is hyaluronidase 
C. Naegler reaction positive 
D. Clostridium perfringens is the most common cause of gas gangrene 

67. Which of the following is not true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A. Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation in males 
B. All strains are highly sensitivity to penicillin 
C. Some strains may cause disseminated disease 
D. It is an exclusive human pathogen 

68. Recent noble prize for –
A. Mitochondrial DNA 
B. RNA 
C. T beta transcription factor 
D. Lipoxin 

69. The temperature of the body rises up for the first two hours after death
A. Sun-stroke 
B. Frost-bite 
C. Septicaemia 
D. Tetanus 

70. Antemortem burn differ from postmortem burns by all except –
A. Vesicle containing air 
B. Pus in vesicle 
C. inflammatory red line 
D. Vesicle with hyperemic base 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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