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Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr K Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
A fresh Mock Paper is generated every time you open this page and every time you refresh it.
For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

1. All is true about stapes except
A. Derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch 
B. Covers the oval window 
C. Controlled by stapedius to protect middle ear 
D. Damage to stapedius produces hyperacusis 

2. False statement regarding timeline during developmental stages is
A. Fertilization occurs within 12-24 hours of ovulation 
B. Blastocyst hatches out of zona pellucida at 5th day post-ovulation 
C. Blastocyst adheres to endometrium on 6th day post ovulation 
D. Utero-placental circulation begins by day 15 

3. Bulbus cordis forms :
A. Trabeculated part of right ventricle 
B. Smooth part of right ventricle 
C. Smooth part of right atrium 
D. Trabeculated part of right atrium 

4. Epiphysio-diaphyseal joint is
A. Primary cartilaginous 
B. Synostosis 
C. Syndesmosis 
D. Schindylesis 

5. The accessory obturator artery is a branch of
A. Inferior epigastric 
B. External iliac 
C. Internal iliac 
D. Obturator 

6. Spinal cord in an infant ends at
A. Lower border of -fix 
B. Lower border of L 
C. Upper border of L 3 
D. Lower border of L 3 

7. The narrowest part of ureter is
A. Uretero pelvic Junction 
B. Iliac vessel crossing 
C. Pelvic ureter 
D. Uretero vesical junction 

8. Difference between TRUE and FALSE CHORDAE is that
A. The former is a part of atrioventricular valvular complex, latter is inter papillary muscle connection 
B. Former has collagen. latter has elastic fibres 
C. No such discrimination is present 
D. A and B 

9. Largest branch of lumbar plexus
A. Sciatic nerve 
B. Femoral nerve 
C. Obturator nerve 
D. Pudendal nerve 

10. Which of the following fibers donít pass through the posterior limb of internal capsule
A. Sublentiform 
B. Retrolentiform 
C. Corticonuclear 
D. Dorsal column 

11. Which is correct about physiological indings seen after lying down?
A. Increase in cerebral blood low 
B. Increase in venous return to the heart 
C. Decrease blood low to the apex of lung 
D. Decrease venous return to the heart 

12. Which of the following statements about CCK is incorrect?
A. It causes gall bladder contraction. 
B. It relaxes the sphincter of Oddi. 
C. It relaxes the pyloric sphincter. 
D. It stimulates the secretion of an enzyme-rich pancreatic juice. 

13. Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow?
A. Pulse pressure  
B. Critical closing pressure  
C. Mean circulatory pressure  
D. Perfusion pressure 

14. Which of the following functions as a frequency analyzer in hearing?
A. Reissner's membrane 
B. Tectorial membrane 
C. Basilar membrane 
D. Middle ear ossicles 

15. The normal basal metabolic rate in a euthyroid adult male is (BSA is body surface area):
A. 10-15 kcal/m2 BSA/hr 
B. 20-25 kcal/m2 BSA/hr 
C. 35-40 kcal/m2 BSA/hr 
D. 45-60 kcal/m2 BSA/hr 

16. Action potentials are conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
A. Motor end plates. 
B. Neuromuscular junctions. 
C. Transverse tubules. 
D. Triads. 

17. Dimerization of which of the following hormone receptors is essential for signaling?
A. Acetylcholine receptor 
B. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor 
C. Growth hormone receptor 
D. Histamine receptor 

18. If intracellular and extracellular calcium are 2 millimoles per liter and 100 nanomoles per liter, the ratio of intracellular and extracellular calcium is approximately:
A. 200 
B. 2000 
C. 20000 
D. 200000 

19. The activity of which contractile protein is altered to regulate smooth muscle contraction?
A. Actin 
B. Myosin 
C. Calmodulin 
D. Tropomyosin 

20. When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly for several seconds with a constant stimulus, the amount of tension gradually increases to a maximum. This phenomenon is called
A. Incomplete tetanus. 
B. Complete tetanus. 
C. A twitch. 
D. Wave summation. 

21. A glucogenic amino acid is one which is degraded to
A. keto-sugars 
B. either acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA 
C. pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates 
D. none of the above 

22. A monoclonal antibody (mAb) specific for the 2,4-dinitrophenyl (DNP) hapten might also bind
A. Leu or Ileu 
B. His or Pro 
C. Tyr or Phe 
D. Ser or Thr 

23. What is the specificity of the Clostripain protease?
A. It cleave after Arg residues 
B. It cleave after His residues 
C. It cleave after Lys residues 
D. None of the above 

24. Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
A. electrostatic attraction 
B. electrical mobility of ionic species 
C. adsorption chromatography 
D. partition chromatography 

25. Which of the following liver enzymes is predominantly mitochondrial?
C. GGT  
D. 5' Nucleotidase 

26. Type A blood
A. can be used to donate to type AB individuals 
B. can be used to donate to type B individuals 
C. contains type B antigens on the surface of red blood cells 
D. can always be used to donate to an Rh+ individual 

27. Which of the following is the basis of first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis?
A. Molecular mass 
B. Solubility 
C. Isoelectric point 
D. Folding 

28. Enzymes of irreversible steps in the glycolysis?
A. Hexokinase, Pyruvate kinase, Phosphofructokinase 
B. A 
D. Hexokinase, Pyruvate kinase, 1,6 biphospho-fructokinase 

29. Oxidation of a molecule involves
A. gain of electron 
B. loss of electron 
C. gain of proton 
D. loss of proton 

30. Papain digest IgG into
A. two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment 
B. three Fab fragments and two Fc fragments 
C. two Fab fragments and two Fc fragments 
D. three Fab fragments and three Fc fragments 

31. Crohnís disease
A. is characterised by the presence of caseating granulomas 
B. incidence peaks in fourth decade 
C. involves the small intestine alone in 10% of sufferers 
D. involves the colon alone in 30% of sufferers 

32. Which of the following statements about hypersensitivity reactions is FALSE:
A. type I hypersensitivity reactions rely on IgE antibodies  
B. the Arthus reaction is a type III reaction  
C. complement depletion usually results in type II reaction 
D. type I reactions aid resistance to parasites 

33. In haemophilia bleeding is due to the deficiency of :
A. Factor VI 
B. Factor VII 
C. Factor VIII 
D. Factor IX 

34. Glycogen can be stained with :
A. Fontana stain 
B. Methylene blue 
C. Periodic acid schiff 
D. Albert stain 

35. The most likely interval between infection and appearance of secondary lesions in syphilis is :
A. 2-3 hours 
B. 2-3 days 
C. 2-3 weeks 
D. 2-3 months 

36. Reed-Sternberg cells are present in :
A. Tuberculosis 
B. Hodgkin's disease 
C. Syphilis 
D. Rheumetic carditis 

37. The leucocyte promoting factor is a :
A. Pseudoglobulin 
B. Polypeptide 
C. Polyglyceride 
D. Hyaluronidase 

38. Clinical features of malaria may include each of the following EXCEPT
A. cerebral haemorrhages. 
B. polycythemia. 
C. splenomegaly. 
D. hepatomegaly 

39. The pigment haematoidin is most identical with :
A. Porphyrin 
B. Bilirubin 
C. Haemosiderin 
D. Haemozoin 

40. The kidneys show acute cortical parenchymatous degeneration and necrosis of tubules. The kidneys are enlarged, cortex is swollen, pale, and oedematous in contrast to congested
A. Acute glomerulonephritis 
B. Acute pyelonephritis 
C. Acute renal failure 
D. Shock kidney 

41. Yeast are most likely to grow in frozen fruits during
A. slow thawing 
B. refrigeration 
C. ambient temperature 
D. none of these 

42. Viral infections frequently observed in HIV disease is /are
A. herpes simplex 
B. varicella- zoster 
C. cytomegalo virus 
D. all of these 

43. Enzyme catalase has non-protein metal as
A. magnesium 
B. manganese 
C. iron 
D. zinc 

44. Reverse transcriptase is a useful enzyme to have when
A. an RNA virus converts its RNA to DNA 
B. there are no host cells present 
C. nutrients are scarce 
D. spikes are forming in the new virus 

45. Cycloserine may be isolated from the cultures of
A. S. orchidaceus 
B. S. lavendulae 
C. S. garyphalus 
D. All of these 

46. The membranes of which domains are chemically the most similar?
A. Archaea and Bacteria 
B. Bacteria and Eukarya 
C. Eukarya and Archaea 
D. membranes of all three domains are chemically identical 

47. A musty or muddy odor of the fish is attributed to
A. the growth of Streptomyces species in the mud at the bottom of the body of water 
B. the mud at the bottom of the body of water 
C. the growth of Pseudomonas species in the mud at the bottom of the body of water 
D. none of the above 

48. Lactobacilli grow best under
A. strict anaerobic conditions 
B. microaerophilic conditions in presence of 5% CO2 and PH6 
C. microaerophilic conditions in presence of 3% CO2 and PH5 
D. microaerophilic conditions in presence of 2% CO2 and PH4 

49. The class of immunoglobulins which can cross the placenta is
A. IgM 
B. IgG 
C. IgA 
D. IgD 

50. Which of the following cross-reacts with cell wall carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. Cardiac valves 
B. Synovial fluid 
C. Myocardium 
D. Vascular intima 

51. Sulphonylureas act by:
A. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut 
B. Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissues 
C. Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis 
D. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin 

52. Epithelial cells are connected by ____, which are tough to cross and materials often must pass through the cells. Endothelial cells of blood vessels are connected by ____, which proteins cannot cross but smaller drugs (MW 200-500) can.
A. Macular gap junctions; Tight junctions 
B. Tight junctions; Macular gap junctions 
C. Adherens junctions; Tight junctions 
D. Tight junctions; Adherens junctions 

53. Contact dermatitis is caused by
A. pollen. 
B. sunlight. 
C. plants. 
D. None of these 

54. Despite having short half-life, PPI acts longer because
A. Causes irreversible inhibition of proton pump. Acid secretion suppressed till new pumps are generated 
B. Get trapped in canaliculi 
C. Enteric coated tablets causing slow release 
D. Prodrugs and needs generation of active metabolites 

55. Which of the following topical decongestant agents is an alfa2-selective agonist?
A. Phenylephrine 
B. Xylometazoline 
C. Ephedrine 
D. Epinephrine 

56. Which of the oral magnesium preparations is often the preparation of choice:
A. Magnesium lactate 
B. Magnesium oxide 
C. MagneB6 (Mg pidolate / Mg lactate + pyridoxine hydrochloride) 
D. All of these. 

57. Which of the following would be a toxin (poison of biological origin)?
A. Pb 
B. As 
C. Hg 
D. Atropine 

58. Bioavailability (F) is the fraction or percentage of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation via a given route as compared to what route?
A. Oral 
B. IV (intravenous) 
C. IO (intraosseous) 
D. CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) 

59. Which of the following NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?
A. Piroxicam 
B. Indomethacin 
C. Celecoxib 
D. Diclofenac 

60. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of pheochromocytoma?
A. Phenylephrine 
B. Propranolol 
C. Phentolamine 
D. Epinephrine 

Forensic medicine
61. Caustic poison corrodes mucosa because of
A. It is programmed to stick 
B. It has affinity for mucosa 
C. Itís hygroscopic nature 
D. It has glue like action 

62. Choking is seen in
A. Revolver 
B. Pistol 
C. Shotgun 
D. Rifle 

63. Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is Ė
A. Merozoites 
B. Trophozoites 
C. Gametocytes 
D. Sporozoites 

64. Aconite poisoning causes all except:
A. Tingling and numbness 
B. Increased BP 
C. Chest pain 
D. Hypersalivation 

65. Property of a 5th month foetus :
A. Size of the foetus 17.5-20 cm 
B. Ossification centres start appearing, talus shows a centre of ossification which on transverse section looks like pin-point haernorrhagic spot 
C. Ossification centre appears in the upper division of the sacrum 
D. Eye-brows are absent 

66. Which of the following anti-estrogen drug is used in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer?
A. Tamoxifen 
B. Clomiphene Citrate 
C. Estrogen 
D. Adriamycin 

67. Time limit for exhumation in India
A. 5 years 
B. 10 years 
C. 20 years 
D. No limit 

68. Klinfelterís syndrome is
A. 45XY, 
B. XO, 
C. 46XY, 
D. XXY  

69. Dried semen stain in clothes is identified by:
A. UV light 
B. Magnifying lens 
C. Infra red 
D. Spectroscopy 

70. A man was found with suicidal shot on right temple. The gun was in his right han
A. The skull was burst open. There was charring and cherry red coloration in the track inside. What can be said about shot? 
B. Contact Shot 
C. Close shot at a distance of one feet from hand- 
D. Shot within range of smoking 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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