Mock Paper - Medical PG Entrace by Dr Chaudhry : Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 1142316457, 9810571993
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For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

1. Trochanteric anastomoses comprises:
A. medial femoral circumflex artery 
B. first perforating artery 
C. superior gluteal artery 
D. inferior gluteal artery 

2. Umbilical artery is a branch of
A. Coeliac artery 
B. Superior mesenteric artery 
C. Anterior division of internal iliac artery 
D. Posterior division of internal iliac artery 

3. Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is
A. Pectoralis major 
B. Teres minor 
C. Semimembranosus 
D. Gastrocnemius 

4. Muscles of the hypothenar eminence are innervated by the
A. Radial nerve 
B. Median nerve 
C. Ulnar nerve 
D. Median & radial nerves 

5. Following are the single gene disorders EXCEPT;
A. Duchene muscle dystrophy 
B. spina bifida 
C. haemophilia 
D. sickle cell anemia 

6. Following are all the features of cerebellar lesions EXCEPT
A. dysdidochokinesis 
B. nystagmus 
C. rigidity of voluntary muscles 
D. intention tremors 

7. An eroded lesion in the jugular foramen may damage which of the following pair of structures
A. Vagus nerve and internal carotid artery 
B. Accessory nerve and Sigmoid sinus 
C. Hypoglossal nerve and inferior petrosal sinus 
D. Glossopharyngeal and inferior petrosal sinus 

8. Melanoblasts are
A. Neural crest cells 
B. Basal epidermal cells 
C. Cells of stratum comeum 
D. Cells of stratum granulosum 

9. Following muscles produce medial rotation of humerus EXCEPT;
A. pectoralis major 
B. pectoralis minor 
C. subscapularis 
D. lattisimus dorsi 

10. Pareneentesis thoracis is done in the
A. 6th intercostal space at the end mid clavicular line 
B. 5th intercostals space at then mid clavicular line 
C. 6th intercostals space at the mid axillary line 
D. 5th intercostals space at the mid axillary line 

11. How would blocking the activity of acetylcholinesterase affect skeletal muscle?
A. It would make the muscles less excitable. 
B. It would produce muscle weakness. 
C. It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax). 
D. It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract). 

12. The latch-bridge mechanism in smooth muscle is responsible for:
A. fast muscle twitch 
B. sustained muscle contraction 
C. excitation-contraction coupling 
D. unstable membrane potential 

13. Which of the following is a bile acid synthesized by the hepatocyte?
A. Sodium taurocholate 
B. Chenodeoxycholic acid 
C. Deoxycholic acid 
D. Lithocholic acid 

14. Maximum water reabsorption in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in:
A. Stomach 
B. Jejunum 
C. Ileum 
D. Colon 

15. With regard to development of gonads, which of the following is most likely with a 46XX zyogote that contains a functional SRY gene?
A. Female internal and external genitalia develop 
B. Both ovaries and testes develop 
C. Only ovaries develop 
D. Only testes develop 

16. Which of the following cells sample the antigenic milieu of the gastrointestinal lumen?
A. P cells 
B. I cells 
C. K cells 
D. M cells 

17. Which of the following strategies would most likely be therapeutic in an individual with achalasia?
A. Injection of tetanus toxin into the lower esophageal sphincter 
B. Surgical division of the lower esophageal sphincter 
C. Administration of a muscarinic receptor agonist 
D. Administration of a nitric oxide synthase inhibitor 

18. The hormone of energy storage (hormone of plenty) is:
A. growth hormone 
B. thyroxine 
C. insulin 
D. glucagon 

19. Recruitment and activation of motor units is investigated by:
A. electromyography 
B. electroencepaholgraphy 
C. nerve action potential recordings 
D. clinical examination of tendon jerks 

20. Select all correct answers. The type(s) of contraction that normally occur(s) only in the colon is/are:
A. peristalsis 
B. antiperistalsis 
C. mass action contraction 
D. Both and C 

21. Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in white blood cell function?
A. DCP1 
D. RP13 

22. The molecular formula for glycine is C2H5O2N. What would be the molecular formula for a linear oligomer made by linking ten glycine molecules together by condensation synthesis?
A. C20H50O20N10 
B. C20H32O11N10 
C. C20H40O10N10 
D. C20H68O29N10 

23. Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy?
D. Microarray 

24. Very low doses of antigen may induce
A. hypersensitivity 
B. immunological ignorance 
C. low zone tolerance 
D. low zone immunity 

25. Cholesterol is essential for normal membrane functions because it
A. plugs up the cardiac arteries of older men 
B. cannot be made by higher organisms 
C. keeps membranes fluid. 
D. spans the thickness of the bilayer 

26. In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated on the basis of their
A. relative content of positively charged residue only 
B. relative content of negatively charged residue only 
C. size 
D. relative content of positively and negatively charged residue 

27. Double stranded DNA denaturation with specified limit of temperature is
A. reversible reaction 
B. irreversible reaction 
C. either (a) or (b) 
D. none of these 

28. In Hartnup’s disease, the absorption of which of the following is defective?
A. Tryptophan 
B. Tyrosine 
C. Xanthurenic acid 
D. Homogentisic acid 

29. Antigen, when injected in the body activates its specific lymphocytes in the
A. blood circulation 
B. draining lymph nodes 
C. MALT (mucosa associated 
D. spleen lymphoid tissue 

30. Which of the following organic groups are found in naturally occuring amino acids?
A. Guanidinium ion 
B. Indole 
C. Imidazole 
D. All of these 

31. In reversible stage of shock, the normal physiological compensatory mechanism comes into play as a response to :
A. Hypotension 
B. Hypertension 
C. Cerebral stimulation 
D. Hypothalamic stimulation 

32. Which of the following is a marker of langerhans cell histiocytosis?
A. CD 1a 
B. CD 10 
C. CD 30 
D. CD56 

33. Melanin can be stained with :
A. Fontana stain 
B. Methylene blue 
C. Periodic acid schiff 
D. Albert stain 

34. Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against:
A. G6PD 
B. Malaria 
C. Thalassemia 
D. Dengue fever 

35. Pernicious anaemia is :
A. Microcytic hypochromic 
B. Microcytic normochromic 
C. Macrocytic hypochromic 
D. Macrocytic normochromic 

36. Persons with sickle cell trait are partly resistant to :
A. Typhoid 
B. Streptococcal septicaemia 
C. Viral disease 
D. Malaria 

37. Chromophobe variant of renal cell carcinoma is associated with
A. VHL gene mutations 
B. Trisomy of 7 and 17 (+7, +17) 
C. 3 p deletions (3p-) 
D. Monosomy of 1 and Y (-1, -Y) 

38. In diabetes mellitus the cells of the distal portion of proximal convoluted tubules contain :
A. Siderin 
B. Amyloid 
C. Glycogen 
D. Mucoprotein 

39. Acute massive collapse is a variety of atelectasis encountered in :
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma 
B. Pulmonary lymphadenitis 
C. Tuberculous meningitis 
D. Abdominal surgery 

40. The lung shows granuloinatous nodules, the hilar nodes are involved. There is extensive fibrosis causing severe dyspnoea and erventually right heart failure. The probable
A. Silicosis 
B. Anthracosis 
C. Asbestosis 
D. Beryllium pneumonitis 

41. The time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms in a sample at a specific temperature is the
A. decimal reduction time 
B. thermal death point 
C. F value 
D. D value 

42. Hepatitis G virus belongs to the family
A. Caliciviridae 
B. Flaviviridae 
C. Hepadnaviridae 
D. Coronaviridae 

43. Generation time of Escherichia coli is
A. 20 minutes 
B. 20 hours 
C. 20 days 
D. 200 hours 

44. Transmission of hepatitis G virus is
A. Parenterally 
B. Sexually 
C. Both A and B 
D. None of these 

45. Sputum can be disinfected by all EXCEPT
A. Autoclaving 
B. Boiling 
C. Cresol 
D. Chlorhexidine 

46. Chemical precipitation of phosphorus is
A. primary treatment 
B. secondary treatment 
C. tertiary treatment 
D. both A and B 

47. The most important organism involved in manufacture of Koji is
A. Aspergillus oryzae 
B. Aspergillus soyae 
C. both A and B 
D. Lactobacillus lactis 

48. Which of the following is considered the most unifying concept in biology?
A. Taxonomy 
B. Anatomy 
C. Genetics 
D. Evolution 

49. Which of the following is best used for long term storage of microbial samples when carried out properly?
A. Storage in a freezer at -10°C 
B. Storage in a freezer at ultra low temperatures (-70°C) 
C. Storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant 
D. Storage on a petri plate at room temperature 

50. Which of the following condition is non-suppurative sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes infections?
A. Acute rheumatic fever 
B. Acute glomerulonephritis 
C. Erythema nodosum 
D. All of these 

51. The ingredient in a drug that causes a physiological response is called
A. D-fill. 
B. excipient. 
C. D-active. 
D. Particle 

52. Indicate the group of drugs influencing the cerebral flow:
A. Ca-channel blockers 
B. Derivatives of GABA 
C. Derivatives of Vinca minor plant 
D. All the above 

53. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:
A. Ampicillin 
B. Bicillin-5 
C. Aztreonam 
D. Imipinem 

54. Which of the following benzodiazepines is less likely to cause cumulative and residual effects with multiple doses?
A. Clorazepate 
B. Quazepam 
C. Lorazepam 
D. Prazepam 

55. The choice of a local anesthetic for specific procedures is usually based on:
A. The duration of action 
B. Water solubility 
C. Capability of rapid penetration through the skin or mucosa with limited tendency to diffuse away from the site of application 
D. All of the above 

56. Correct statements about fluoride include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fluoride is effective for the prophylaxis of dental caries 
B. Fluoride is accumulated by bone and teeth, where it may stabilize the hydroxyapatite crystal 
C. 1 
D. Subjects living in areas with naturally fluoridated water (1-2 ppm) had more dental caries and fewer vertebral compression fractures than subjects living in nonfluoridated water areas 

57. Tick the anticancer drug belonging to inorganic metal complexes:
A. Dacarbazine 
B. Cisplatin 
C. Methotrexate 
D. Vincristine 

58. Hyperalimentation is
A. parenteral nutrition. 
B. enternal nutrition. 
C. a high saline concentration for parenteral nutrition therapy. 
D. None of these 

59. Indicate the “specific” modality of treatment for severe methanol poisoning:
A. Dialysis to enhance removal of methanol 
B. Alkalinization to counteract metabolic acidosis 
C. Suppression of metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase to toxic products 
D. All of these 

60. What is true about First Order Kinetics?
A. Constant amount of drug is eliminated 
B. Rate of elimination is constant 
C. Free drug concentration increased after successive doses 
D. Rate of Elimination is proportional to plasma concentration of the drug 

Forensic medicine
61. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and lose of appetite. The most likely poisoning is:
A. Arsenic 
B. Mercury 
C. Lead 
D. Phosphorus 

62. Symptom of syncope :
A. Pallor of face or lips 
B. Skin cold and clammy 
C. Sense of sinking and restlessness 
D. Rapid thready pulse 

63. Hatter’s shakes are seen in which poisoning –
A. Lead 
B. Mercury 
C. Copper 
D. Arsenic 

64. Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis?
A. Atropine 
B. Phenobarbitone 
C. Scopolamine 
D. Pethidine 

65. Property of a 3rd month foetus :
A. Foetus well developed 7.5-10 cm long 
B. Neck is formed 
C. Limbs well-developed 
D. Sex differentiation possible. 

66. The characteristic burnt rope odour is caused by toxin of
A. Cannabis 
B. Tobacco 
C. Strychnine 
D. Chloral hydrate 

67. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and lose of appetite. The most likely poisoning is:
A. Mercury 
B. Lead 
C. Phosphorus 
D. Arsenic 

68. Characteristics of convulsion stage in asphyxia
A. Respiratory muscles hyperactive 
B. Cyanosis of hands and feet 
C. Unconsciousness and cloudy thinking 
D. Convulsions of tonic type 

69. Hegar's sign is meant for detection of
A. Sterility 
B. Virginity 
C. Pregnancy 
D. Dead foetus 

70. In an incised wound fibrils are observed developing parallel to the vessels
A. 24 hours 
B. 48 hours 
C. 48-72 hours 
D. 3-5 days 

Preclinical & Paraclinical Subjects
Clinical Subjects

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